Where can I find a clear explanation (brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2)?Implied volatility and pricing of...

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Where can I find a clear explanation (brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2)?


Implied volatility and pricing of vanilla optionsDerivation of Stochastic Vol PDEDerivation of Magrabe formulaProblems with a Black-Scholes modified equationImportance Sampling for pricing options with longstaff and schwartz$mathbb{P}$ and $mathbb{Q}$ probability measure/distribution interpretationsUsing black scholes to model a clawback in private equityAttempt of an analytical proof that a call price decreases as its strike increasesOriginal Black-Scholes paper assumptions — “variance rate”How to find correct change of measure






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1












$begingroup$


Where can I find a good explanation (perhaps with a brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2) from Black-Scholes? Just trying to understand the general idea about these 2 probability functions and how they work...



(Thinking they probably work by trying to predict the probability of the cost or profit part of the BS equation by estimating the probability of being at a particular point of a normal distribution but I don't know how that is being achieved)










share|improve this question







New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
    $endgroup$
    – mark leeds
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
    $endgroup$
    – Denis
    7 hours ago


















1












$begingroup$


Where can I find a good explanation (perhaps with a brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2) from Black-Scholes? Just trying to understand the general idea about these 2 probability functions and how they work...



(Thinking they probably work by trying to predict the probability of the cost or profit part of the BS equation by estimating the probability of being at a particular point of a normal distribution but I don't know how that is being achieved)










share|improve this question







New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
    $endgroup$
    – mark leeds
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
    $endgroup$
    – Denis
    7 hours ago














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Where can I find a good explanation (perhaps with a brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2) from Black-Scholes? Just trying to understand the general idea about these 2 probability functions and how they work...



(Thinking they probably work by trying to predict the probability of the cost or profit part of the BS equation by estimating the probability of being at a particular point of a normal distribution but I don't know how that is being achieved)










share|improve this question







New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$




Where can I find a good explanation (perhaps with a brief derivation) of N(d1) and N(d2) from Black-Scholes? Just trying to understand the general idea about these 2 probability functions and how they work...



(Thinking they probably work by trying to predict the probability of the cost or profit part of the BS equation by estimating the probability of being at a particular point of a normal distribution but I don't know how that is being achieved)







option-pricing black-scholes






share|improve this question







New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










share|improve this question







New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








share|improve this question




share|improve this question






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asked 9 hours ago









DenisDenis

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New contributor



Denis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




New contributor




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Check out our Code of Conduct.

















  • $begingroup$
    Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
    $endgroup$
    – mark leeds
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
    $endgroup$
    – Denis
    7 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
    $endgroup$
    – mark leeds
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
    $endgroup$
    – Denis
    7 hours ago
















$begingroup$
Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
$endgroup$
– mark leeds
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
Hi: I didn't read this but it looks useful at a glance. financetrainingcourse.com/education/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/…
$endgroup$
– mark leeds
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
@markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
$endgroup$
– Denis
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
@markleeds: wow, I worked with Lars a few years back!
$endgroup$
– Denis
7 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

There are several derivations and interpretations for $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$. As you know,
begin{align*}
C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
end{align*}

We can also show that
begin{align*}
mathbb{Q}_S[{S_Tgeq K}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
end{align*}

Thus, $N(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.



Alternatively, but a similar idea, we can show that
begin{align*}
Delta = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
kappa = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
end{align*}

and if you recall the idea of a $Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $N(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.



You can see $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options ($S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1)$ refers to the price of an asset-or-nothing call and $e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$ to the price of a cash-or-nothing call).



The derivation follows standard arguments, i.e.
begin{align*}
C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[max{S_T-K,0}]\
&= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]\
&= e^{-r(T-t)}left(mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[S_Tmathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] - Kmathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]right).
end{align*}

From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.



In order to compute the probabilities, simply note that (as an example)
begin{align*}
mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] &= mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] \
&= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}].
end{align*}

Since $ln(S_T)sim Nleft(ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T,sigma^2 Tright)$, you have for $Zsim N(0,1)$,
begin{align*}
mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}] &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T+sigma^2 T Zgeq ln(K)}] \
&= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq frac{ln(K)-ln(S_0)-left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
&= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq -frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
&= 1-mathbb{Q}left[left{Zleq-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
&= 1-Phileft(-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
&= Phileft(frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
&= Phi(d_2).
end{align*}



Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...






share|improve this answer











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    $begingroup$

    There are several derivations and interpretations for $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$. As you know,
    begin{align*}
    C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
    end{align*}

    We can also show that
    begin{align*}
    mathbb{Q}_S[{S_Tgeq K}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
    mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
    end{align*}

    Thus, $N(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.



    Alternatively, but a similar idea, we can show that
    begin{align*}
    Delta = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
    kappa = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
    end{align*}

    and if you recall the idea of a $Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $N(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.



    You can see $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options ($S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1)$ refers to the price of an asset-or-nothing call and $e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$ to the price of a cash-or-nothing call).



    The derivation follows standard arguments, i.e.
    begin{align*}
    C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[max{S_T-K,0}]\
    &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]\
    &= e^{-r(T-t)}left(mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[S_Tmathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] - Kmathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]right).
    end{align*}

    From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.



    In order to compute the probabilities, simply note that (as an example)
    begin{align*}
    mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] &= mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] \
    &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}].
    end{align*}

    Since $ln(S_T)sim Nleft(ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T,sigma^2 Tright)$, you have for $Zsim N(0,1)$,
    begin{align*}
    mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}] &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T+sigma^2 T Zgeq ln(K)}] \
    &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq frac{ln(K)-ln(S_0)-left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
    &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq -frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
    &= 1-mathbb{Q}left[left{Zleq-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
    &= 1-Phileft(-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
    &= Phileft(frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
    &= Phi(d_2).
    end{align*}



    Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...






    share|improve this answer











    $endgroup$




















      3












      $begingroup$

      There are several derivations and interpretations for $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$. As you know,
      begin{align*}
      C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
      end{align*}

      We can also show that
      begin{align*}
      mathbb{Q}_S[{S_Tgeq K}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
      mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
      end{align*}

      Thus, $N(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.



      Alternatively, but a similar idea, we can show that
      begin{align*}
      Delta = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
      kappa = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
      end{align*}

      and if you recall the idea of a $Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $N(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.



      You can see $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options ($S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1)$ refers to the price of an asset-or-nothing call and $e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$ to the price of a cash-or-nothing call).



      The derivation follows standard arguments, i.e.
      begin{align*}
      C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[max{S_T-K,0}]\
      &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]\
      &= e^{-r(T-t)}left(mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[S_Tmathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] - Kmathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]right).
      end{align*}

      From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.



      In order to compute the probabilities, simply note that (as an example)
      begin{align*}
      mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] &= mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] \
      &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}].
      end{align*}

      Since $ln(S_T)sim Nleft(ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T,sigma^2 Tright)$, you have for $Zsim N(0,1)$,
      begin{align*}
      mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}] &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T+sigma^2 T Zgeq ln(K)}] \
      &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq frac{ln(K)-ln(S_0)-left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
      &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq -frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
      &= 1-mathbb{Q}left[left{Zleq-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
      &= 1-Phileft(-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
      &= Phileft(frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
      &= Phi(d_2).
      end{align*}



      Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...






      share|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        There are several derivations and interpretations for $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$. As you know,
        begin{align*}
        C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        We can also show that
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{Q}_S[{S_Tgeq K}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
        mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        Thus, $N(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.



        Alternatively, but a similar idea, we can show that
        begin{align*}
        Delta = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
        kappa = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        and if you recall the idea of a $Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $N(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.



        You can see $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options ($S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1)$ refers to the price of an asset-or-nothing call and $e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$ to the price of a cash-or-nothing call).



        The derivation follows standard arguments, i.e.
        begin{align*}
        C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[max{S_T-K,0}]\
        &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]\
        &= e^{-r(T-t)}left(mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[S_Tmathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] - Kmathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]right).
        end{align*}

        From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.



        In order to compute the probabilities, simply note that (as an example)
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] &= mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] \
        &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}].
        end{align*}

        Since $ln(S_T)sim Nleft(ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T,sigma^2 Tright)$, you have for $Zsim N(0,1)$,
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}] &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T+sigma^2 T Zgeq ln(K)}] \
        &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq frac{ln(K)-ln(S_0)-left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq -frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= 1-mathbb{Q}left[left{Zleq-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= 1-Phileft(-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
        &= Phileft(frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
        &= Phi(d_2).
        end{align*}



        Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...






        share|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        There are several derivations and interpretations for $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$. As you know,
        begin{align*}
        C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        We can also show that
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{Q}_S[{S_Tgeq K}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
        mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        Thus, $N(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.



        Alternatively, but a similar idea, we can show that
        begin{align*}
        Delta = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1), \
        kappa = frac{partial C(t,S_t)}{partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2).
        end{align*}

        and if you recall the idea of a $Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $N(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.



        You can see $N(d_1)$ and $N(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options ($S_te^{-q(T-t)}N(d_1)$ refers to the price of an asset-or-nothing call and $e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$ to the price of a cash-or-nothing call).



        The derivation follows standard arguments, i.e.
        begin{align*}
        C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[max{S_T-K,0}]\
        &= e^{-r(T-t)}mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]\
        &= e^{-r(T-t)}left(mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[S_Tmathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] - Kmathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}]right).
        end{align*}

        From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.



        In order to compute the probabilities, simply note that (as an example)
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{E}^mathbb{Q}[mathbb{1}_{{S_Tgeq K}}] &= mathbb{Q}[{S_Tgeq K}] \
        &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}].
        end{align*}

        Since $ln(S_T)sim Nleft(ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T,sigma^2 Tright)$, you have for $Zsim N(0,1)$,
        begin{align*}
        mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_T)geq ln(K)}] &= mathbb{Q}[{ln(S_0)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T+sigma^2 T Zgeq ln(K)}] \
        &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq frac{ln(K)-ln(S_0)-left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= mathbb{Q}left[left{Zgeq -frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= 1-mathbb{Q}left[left{Zleq-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right}right] \
        &= 1-Phileft(-frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
        &= Phileft(frac{lnleft(frac{S_0}{K}right)+left(r-q-frac{1}{2}sigma^2right)T}{sigma^2T}right) \
        &= Phi(d_2).
        end{align*}



        Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...







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        edited 8 hours ago

























        answered 8 hours ago









        KeSchnKeSchn

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