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When did F become S in typeography, and why?

4

I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."

What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?

18th-century language

share|improve this question

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß
  
  – Agent_L
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

4

I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."

What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?

18th-century language

share|improve this question

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß
  
  – Agent_L
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."

What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?

18th-century language

share|improve this question

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

share|improve this question

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

share|improve this question

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

edited 29 mins ago

Ian Kemp

1033

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

asked yesterday

Ryan_LRyan_L

26826

1 Answer
1

active

oldest

votes

23

There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.

The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.

In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.

See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.

Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:

• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/37982/use-of-f-instead-of-s-in-historic-printed-english-documents


• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/321980/how-exactly-was-the-long-s-used-and-why-did-people-stop-using-it

share|improve this answer

edited 11 hours ago

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.
  
  – TonyK
  13 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.
  
  – sgf
  13 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.
  
  – Denis de Bernardy
  12 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

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23

There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.

The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.

In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.

See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.

Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:

• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/37982/use-of-f-instead-of-s-in-historic-printed-english-documents


• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/321980/how-exactly-was-the-long-s-used-and-why-did-people-stop-using-it

share|improve this answer

edited 11 hours ago

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.
  
  – TonyK
  13 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.
  
  – sgf
  13 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.
  
  – Denis de Bernardy
  12 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

23

There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.

The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.

In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.

See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.

Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:

• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/37982/use-of-f-instead-of-s-in-historic-printed-english-documents


• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/321980/how-exactly-was-the-long-s-used-and-why-did-people-stop-using-it

share|improve this answer

edited 11 hours ago

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.
  
  – TonyK
  13 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.
  
  – sgf
  13 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.
  
  – Denis de Bernardy
  12 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.

The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.

In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.

See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.

Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:

• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/37982/use-of-f-instead-of-s-in-historic-printed-english-documents


• https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/321980/how-exactly-was-the-long-s-used-and-why-did-people-stop-using-it

share|improve this answer

edited 11 hours ago

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

share|improve this answer

edited 11 hours ago

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555

answered yesterday

Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555