Area of parallelogram = Area of square. Shear transformVisualizing the Area of a ParallelogramArea of stripe...

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Area of parallelogram = Area of square. Shear transform


Visualizing the Area of a ParallelogramArea of stripe around cylinderProving the area of a square and the required axiomsarea of rotated squares on top of each otherArea of Square $neq$ the area of Rhombus created by stretched square?volume of a frustum in different wayParallelogram, Area and AnglesHow to prove area of the square and parallelogram the same?How can the area of a parallelogram be show to be equal to the determinant?Confusion on Parallelogram






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}







3












$begingroup$


Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.

Since area of parallelogram is base x height, both square and parallelogram have the same area.



enter image description here



This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.



enter image description here



In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same.
enter image description here



But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



















    3












    $begingroup$


    Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.

    Since area of parallelogram is base x height, both square and parallelogram have the same area.



    enter image description here



    This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.



    enter image description here



    In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same.
    enter image description here



    But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.

      Since area of parallelogram is base x height, both square and parallelogram have the same area.



      enter image description here



      This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.



      enter image description here



      In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same.
      enter image description here



      But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.

      Since area of parallelogram is base x height, both square and parallelogram have the same area.



      enter image description here



      This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.



      enter image description here



      In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same.
      enter image description here



      But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?







      geometry






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 9 hours ago









      rsadhvikarsadhvika

      1,79912 silver badges29 bronze badges




      1,79912 silver badges29 bronze badges






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          Behold, $phantom{proof without words}$



          picture






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            1 hour ago



















          2












          $begingroup$

          It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.



          I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.



          The general form of such a transformation is



          $begin{bmatrix}1&a\0&1end{bmatrix}$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)



          Then you always have



          $$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
          $$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
          $$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
          $$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$



          From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago



















          2












          $begingroup$

          Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
            $endgroup$
            – Joshua Ronis
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago



















          1












          $begingroup$

          In your first two figures, note that
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(HCG)$$
          and
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EFGH)+text{area}(BEF).$$
          But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
          Subtracting that gives
          $$text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(BCG)=text{area}(EFGH).$$
          Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago
















          Your Answer








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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          Behold, $phantom{proof without words}$



          picture






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            1 hour ago
















          4












          $begingroup$

          Behold, $phantom{proof without words}$



          picture






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            1 hour ago














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Behold, $phantom{proof without words}$



          picture






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Behold, $phantom{proof without words}$



          picture







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 5 hours ago









          runway44runway44

          6876 bronze badges




          6876 bronze badges












          • $begingroup$
            Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            1 hour ago


















          • $begingroup$
            Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            1 hour ago
















          $begingroup$
          Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          1 hour ago




          $begingroup$
          Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          1 hour ago













          2












          $begingroup$

          It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.



          I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.



          The general form of such a transformation is



          $begin{bmatrix}1&a\0&1end{bmatrix}$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)



          Then you always have



          $$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
          $$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
          $$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
          $$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$



          From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago
















          2












          $begingroup$

          It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.



          I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.



          The general form of such a transformation is



          $begin{bmatrix}1&a\0&1end{bmatrix}$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)



          Then you always have



          $$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
          $$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
          $$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
          $$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$



          From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.



          I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.



          The general form of such a transformation is



          $begin{bmatrix}1&a\0&1end{bmatrix}$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)



          Then you always have



          $$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
          $$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
          $$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
          $$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$



          From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.



          I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.



          The general form of such a transformation is



          $begin{bmatrix}1&a\0&1end{bmatrix}$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)



          Then you always have



          $$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
          $$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
          $$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
          $$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$



          From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 9 hours ago

























          answered 9 hours ago









          rschwiebrschwieb

          111k12 gold badges111 silver badges260 bronze badges




          111k12 gold badges111 silver badges260 bronze badges












          • $begingroup$
            It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago


















          • $begingroup$
            It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
          $endgroup$
          – runway44
          5 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
          $endgroup$
          – runway44
          5 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          2 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          2 hours ago











          2












          $begingroup$

          Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
            $endgroup$
            – Joshua Ronis
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
            $endgroup$
            – Joshua Ronis
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).



          enter image description here







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 3 hours ago

























          answered 9 hours ago









          David G. StorkDavid G. Stork

          13.6k4 gold badges19 silver badges37 bronze badges




          13.6k4 gold badges19 silver badges37 bronze badges








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
            $endgroup$
            – Joshua Ronis
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
            $endgroup$
            – Joshua Ronis
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            5 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – rschwieb
            2 hours ago








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          8 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          8 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
          $endgroup$
          – Joshua Ronis
          7 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
          $endgroup$
          – Joshua Ronis
          7 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
          $endgroup$
          – David G. Stork
          5 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
          $endgroup$
          – David G. Stork
          5 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          2 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
          $endgroup$
          – rschwieb
          2 hours ago











          1












          $begingroup$

          In your first two figures, note that
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(HCG)$$
          and
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EFGH)+text{area}(BEF).$$
          But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
          Subtracting that gives
          $$text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(BCG)=text{area}(EFGH).$$
          Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago


















          1












          $begingroup$

          In your first two figures, note that
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(HCG)$$
          and
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EFGH)+text{area}(BEF).$$
          But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
          Subtracting that gives
          $$text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(BCG)=text{area}(EFGH).$$
          Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          In your first two figures, note that
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(HCG)$$
          and
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EFGH)+text{area}(BEF).$$
          But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
          Subtracting that gives
          $$text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(BCG)=text{area}(EFGH).$$
          Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          In your first two figures, note that
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(HCG)$$
          and
          $$text{area}(EBGH)=text{area}(EFGH)+text{area}(BEF).$$
          But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
          Subtracting that gives
          $$text{area}(EBCH)+text{area}(BCG)=text{area}(EFGH).$$
          Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 13 mins ago

























          answered 9 hours ago









          Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

          116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges




          116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges












          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago




















          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
            $endgroup$
            – runway44
            5 hours ago


















          $begingroup$
          I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
          $endgroup$
          – runway44
          5 hours ago






          $begingroup$
          I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
          $endgroup$
          – runway44
          5 hours ago




















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