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Turning an Abelian Group into a Vector Space


Are these vector spaces?Proving a subspace of $mathbb{R}^{2}$ is still a vector space with redefined addition / scalar multiplication operations?Define two differents vector space structures over a field on an abelian groupnumber of differents vector space structures over the same field $mathbb{F}$ on an abelian groupgroups products vs vector space productsCan we define a binary operation on $mathbb Z$ to make it a vector space over $mathbb Q$?Vector spaces: Is (the) scalar multiplication unique?Is a vector space a subset of an abelian group?An abelian group as an $mathbb F_2$-vector spaceCan an abelian group be a real vector space in more than one way?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}







5












$begingroup$


This question is inspired by the question Are these vector spaces? but is free-standing.



Suppose $mathbb{F}$ is a field, and that $X$ is the multiplicative group of $mathbb{F}$.



Let us write this abelian group $X$ additively. To be precise the set is $mathbb{F}setminus{0}$, the zero element is $hat{0}:=1$, the addition operation is $x hat{+}y:=xy$, and the negative operation is $widehat{-}x:=x^{-1}$.



Let $V$ be the abelian group of $n$-tuples $X^n$ with the usual co-ordinatewise operations.



Question : Can we define an $mathbb{F}$-scalar multiplication on $V$ so that $V$ becomes an $mathbb{F}$-vector space?



By looking at $-1$ in $mathbb{F}$, which satisfies $(-1)hat{+}(-1)=(-1)^2=1=hat{0}$ we see that if there is to be any chance of turning $V$ into a vector space then the field $mathbb{F}$ must have characteristic $2$. More than that, a similar argument on $(2^k -1)$-th roots of unity will show that $mathbb{F}$ has no finite subfields $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ except $mathbb{F}_2$. Beyond that I cannot go.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





















    5












    $begingroup$


    This question is inspired by the question Are these vector spaces? but is free-standing.



    Suppose $mathbb{F}$ is a field, and that $X$ is the multiplicative group of $mathbb{F}$.



    Let us write this abelian group $X$ additively. To be precise the set is $mathbb{F}setminus{0}$, the zero element is $hat{0}:=1$, the addition operation is $x hat{+}y:=xy$, and the negative operation is $widehat{-}x:=x^{-1}$.



    Let $V$ be the abelian group of $n$-tuples $X^n$ with the usual co-ordinatewise operations.



    Question : Can we define an $mathbb{F}$-scalar multiplication on $V$ so that $V$ becomes an $mathbb{F}$-vector space?



    By looking at $-1$ in $mathbb{F}$, which satisfies $(-1)hat{+}(-1)=(-1)^2=1=hat{0}$ we see that if there is to be any chance of turning $V$ into a vector space then the field $mathbb{F}$ must have characteristic $2$. More than that, a similar argument on $(2^k -1)$-th roots of unity will show that $mathbb{F}$ has no finite subfields $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ except $mathbb{F}_2$. Beyond that I cannot go.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$

















      5












      5








      5


      3



      $begingroup$


      This question is inspired by the question Are these vector spaces? but is free-standing.



      Suppose $mathbb{F}$ is a field, and that $X$ is the multiplicative group of $mathbb{F}$.



      Let us write this abelian group $X$ additively. To be precise the set is $mathbb{F}setminus{0}$, the zero element is $hat{0}:=1$, the addition operation is $x hat{+}y:=xy$, and the negative operation is $widehat{-}x:=x^{-1}$.



      Let $V$ be the abelian group of $n$-tuples $X^n$ with the usual co-ordinatewise operations.



      Question : Can we define an $mathbb{F}$-scalar multiplication on $V$ so that $V$ becomes an $mathbb{F}$-vector space?



      By looking at $-1$ in $mathbb{F}$, which satisfies $(-1)hat{+}(-1)=(-1)^2=1=hat{0}$ we see that if there is to be any chance of turning $V$ into a vector space then the field $mathbb{F}$ must have characteristic $2$. More than that, a similar argument on $(2^k -1)$-th roots of unity will show that $mathbb{F}$ has no finite subfields $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ except $mathbb{F}_2$. Beyond that I cannot go.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      This question is inspired by the question Are these vector spaces? but is free-standing.



      Suppose $mathbb{F}$ is a field, and that $X$ is the multiplicative group of $mathbb{F}$.



      Let us write this abelian group $X$ additively. To be precise the set is $mathbb{F}setminus{0}$, the zero element is $hat{0}:=1$, the addition operation is $x hat{+}y:=xy$, and the negative operation is $widehat{-}x:=x^{-1}$.



      Let $V$ be the abelian group of $n$-tuples $X^n$ with the usual co-ordinatewise operations.



      Question : Can we define an $mathbb{F}$-scalar multiplication on $V$ so that $V$ becomes an $mathbb{F}$-vector space?



      By looking at $-1$ in $mathbb{F}$, which satisfies $(-1)hat{+}(-1)=(-1)^2=1=hat{0}$ we see that if there is to be any chance of turning $V$ into a vector space then the field $mathbb{F}$ must have characteristic $2$. More than that, a similar argument on $(2^k -1)$-th roots of unity will show that $mathbb{F}$ has no finite subfields $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ except $mathbb{F}_2$. Beyond that I cannot go.







      linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces commutative-algebra modules






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 11 hours ago









      Omnomnomnom

      133k7 gold badges98 silver badges198 bronze badges




      133k7 gold badges98 silver badges198 bronze badges










      asked 12 hours ago









      ancientmathematicianancientmathematician

      5,3971 gold badge6 silver badges17 bronze badges




      5,3971 gold badge6 silver badges17 bronze badges

























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          7













          $begingroup$

          The answer is no except for the trivial case $mathbb F =mathbb F_2$ (in which $V=0$)



          Indeed, assume $mathbb F$ is such a field and take $xin mathbb F^*$. In the structure of $V$, we have $2cdot x = 0$, which translates to $x^2= 1$ in $mathbb F$ (for each coordinate).



          This implies that any element of $mathbb F$ is a root of $X^2-1$ which has at most to roots : $|mathbb F| leq 2$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Arturo Magidin
            10 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Great, thanks to both of you
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago



















          0













          $begingroup$

          Not an answer, but hopefully a useful observation. Your question (if I have understood it correctly) can be reframed as follows.




          We are given an abelian group $X = Bbb Fsetminus {0}$, which we present as a $Bbb Z$-module where $x+y := xy$ and $nx := x^{n}$. Is it possible to take $V = X^n$ and extend multiplication by $Bbb Z$ into multiplication by $Bbb F$ in such a way that $V$ becomes a $Bbb F$-module (i.e. a vector space over $Bbb F$)?




          As Max's comment below observes: any $Bbb F$-space structure $V$ exists corresponds to an $Bbb F$-linear map $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F to V$. Notably, $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F$ is the usual extension of scalars.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            11 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            11 hours ago














          Your Answer








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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          7













          $begingroup$

          The answer is no except for the trivial case $mathbb F =mathbb F_2$ (in which $V=0$)



          Indeed, assume $mathbb F$ is such a field and take $xin mathbb F^*$. In the structure of $V$, we have $2cdot x = 0$, which translates to $x^2= 1$ in $mathbb F$ (for each coordinate).



          This implies that any element of $mathbb F$ is a root of $X^2-1$ which has at most to roots : $|mathbb F| leq 2$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Arturo Magidin
            10 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Great, thanks to both of you
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago
















          7













          $begingroup$

          The answer is no except for the trivial case $mathbb F =mathbb F_2$ (in which $V=0$)



          Indeed, assume $mathbb F$ is such a field and take $xin mathbb F^*$. In the structure of $V$, we have $2cdot x = 0$, which translates to $x^2= 1$ in $mathbb F$ (for each coordinate).



          This implies that any element of $mathbb F$ is a root of $X^2-1$ which has at most to roots : $|mathbb F| leq 2$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Arturo Magidin
            10 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Great, thanks to both of you
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago














          7














          7










          7







          $begingroup$

          The answer is no except for the trivial case $mathbb F =mathbb F_2$ (in which $V=0$)



          Indeed, assume $mathbb F$ is such a field and take $xin mathbb F^*$. In the structure of $V$, we have $2cdot x = 0$, which translates to $x^2= 1$ in $mathbb F$ (for each coordinate).



          This implies that any element of $mathbb F$ is a root of $X^2-1$ which has at most to roots : $|mathbb F| leq 2$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The answer is no except for the trivial case $mathbb F =mathbb F_2$ (in which $V=0$)



          Indeed, assume $mathbb F$ is such a field and take $xin mathbb F^*$. In the structure of $V$, we have $2cdot x = 0$, which translates to $x^2= 1$ in $mathbb F$ (for each coordinate).



          This implies that any element of $mathbb F$ is a root of $X^2-1$ which has at most to roots : $|mathbb F| leq 2$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 10 hours ago









          MaxMax

          23.2k1 gold badge12 silver badges54 bronze badges




          23.2k1 gold badge12 silver badges54 bronze badges















          • $begingroup$
            Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Arturo Magidin
            10 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Great, thanks to both of you
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago


















          • $begingroup$
            Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Arturo Magidin
            10 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Great, thanks to both of you
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            10 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            10 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          10 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Fantastic! Any clue what $V otimes Bbb F_{2^k}$ looks like? Is it ever non-zero?
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          10 hours ago




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          10 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @omnomnomnom : yes, in fact if $mathbb F$ is e.g. $mathbb F_2 (X) $ then its multiplicative group is free, so $Votimes mathbb F$ is a direct sum of copies of $mathbb F$
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          10 hours ago




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
          $endgroup$
          – Arturo Magidin
          10 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @Omnomnomnom But for $mathbb{F}_{2^k}$ and $V=mathbb{F}_{2^k}setminus{0}$ under multiplication, it is zero: every element of $V$ satisfies $v^{2^k}=v$, hence the generators are all zero: $votimesalpha = v^{2^k}otimesalpha = votimes(2^kalpha) = votimes 0 = mathbf{0}$.
          $endgroup$
          – Arturo Magidin
          10 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          Great, thanks to both of you
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          10 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Great, thanks to both of you
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          10 hours ago




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          10 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @jyrkilahtonen : I think that's the case : the notation $mathbb F$ is used for both
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          10 hours ago













          0













          $begingroup$

          Not an answer, but hopefully a useful observation. Your question (if I have understood it correctly) can be reframed as follows.




          We are given an abelian group $X = Bbb Fsetminus {0}$, which we present as a $Bbb Z$-module where $x+y := xy$ and $nx := x^{n}$. Is it possible to take $V = X^n$ and extend multiplication by $Bbb Z$ into multiplication by $Bbb F$ in such a way that $V$ becomes a $Bbb F$-module (i.e. a vector space over $Bbb F$)?




          As Max's comment below observes: any $Bbb F$-space structure $V$ exists corresponds to an $Bbb F$-linear map $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F to V$. Notably, $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F$ is the usual extension of scalars.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            11 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            11 hours ago
















          0













          $begingroup$

          Not an answer, but hopefully a useful observation. Your question (if I have understood it correctly) can be reframed as follows.




          We are given an abelian group $X = Bbb Fsetminus {0}$, which we present as a $Bbb Z$-module where $x+y := xy$ and $nx := x^{n}$. Is it possible to take $V = X^n$ and extend multiplication by $Bbb Z$ into multiplication by $Bbb F$ in such a way that $V$ becomes a $Bbb F$-module (i.e. a vector space over $Bbb F$)?




          As Max's comment below observes: any $Bbb F$-space structure $V$ exists corresponds to an $Bbb F$-linear map $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F to V$. Notably, $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F$ is the usual extension of scalars.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















          • $begingroup$
            Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            11 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            11 hours ago














          0














          0










          0







          $begingroup$

          Not an answer, but hopefully a useful observation. Your question (if I have understood it correctly) can be reframed as follows.




          We are given an abelian group $X = Bbb Fsetminus {0}$, which we present as a $Bbb Z$-module where $x+y := xy$ and $nx := x^{n}$. Is it possible to take $V = X^n$ and extend multiplication by $Bbb Z$ into multiplication by $Bbb F$ in such a way that $V$ becomes a $Bbb F$-module (i.e. a vector space over $Bbb F$)?




          As Max's comment below observes: any $Bbb F$-space structure $V$ exists corresponds to an $Bbb F$-linear map $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F to V$. Notably, $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F$ is the usual extension of scalars.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Not an answer, but hopefully a useful observation. Your question (if I have understood it correctly) can be reframed as follows.




          We are given an abelian group $X = Bbb Fsetminus {0}$, which we present as a $Bbb Z$-module where $x+y := xy$ and $nx := x^{n}$. Is it possible to take $V = X^n$ and extend multiplication by $Bbb Z$ into multiplication by $Bbb F$ in such a way that $V$ becomes a $Bbb F$-module (i.e. a vector space over $Bbb F$)?




          As Max's comment below observes: any $Bbb F$-space structure $V$ exists corresponds to an $Bbb F$-linear map $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F to V$. Notably, $V otimes_{Bbb Z} Bbb F$ is the usual extension of scalars.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 11 hours ago


























          community wiki





          3 revs
          Omnomnomnom
















          • $begingroup$
            Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            11 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            11 hours ago


















          • $begingroup$
            Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
            $endgroup$
            – Max
            11 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            11 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          11 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Why does $Votimes mathbb F = 0$ ? if it is the case then there is no $mathbb F$-vector space structure on $V$ as such a thing would be a map $Votimes mathbb Fto V$
          $endgroup$
          – Max
          11 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          11 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @Max I see no justification for my statement, now that I think about it. I'll remove it.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          11 hours ago


















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