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Using dividends to reduce short term capital gains?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
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Frequently Answered Questions (by topic)
Member discussion on Closed vs DeletedShort or Long Term Capital Gains for Multiple InvestmentsCapital Gains in an S CorpHow do taxes work when your only income is from capital gains?Capital Gains Tax for State of Iowa: No distinction between short-term vs long-term gains?Is there a way to roll over short-term gains and avoid capital gain taxPaying taxes on dividends even though your capital gains were $0?Withholding for unexpected Short-Term Capital Gains and PenaltiesDoes “income” include capital gains?What are the “capital gains” my ETF is distributing to me alongside its dividends?Does Net Investment Income Tax (NIIT) apply to short-term capital gains





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3















Let's say I have $100 in short term capital gains this year. I will need to pay taxes on this gains at the my ordinary tax rate (which we shall assume is 37%).



Let's also say there is a stock that has a dividend in December. It's $1000 stock and the dividend amount is $10. Let's also assume this stock has very low volatility.



So I buy 10 shares for $1000, collect the dividend, then sell the 10 shares for $990.



I've wiped out my short term capital gains. And now I only need to pay taxes on the dividend (which is a much lower rate than 37%).



What is wrong with this logic?










share|improve this question































    3















    Let's say I have $100 in short term capital gains this year. I will need to pay taxes on this gains at the my ordinary tax rate (which we shall assume is 37%).



    Let's also say there is a stock that has a dividend in December. It's $1000 stock and the dividend amount is $10. Let's also assume this stock has very low volatility.



    So I buy 10 shares for $1000, collect the dividend, then sell the 10 shares for $990.



    I've wiped out my short term capital gains. And now I only need to pay taxes on the dividend (which is a much lower rate than 37%).



    What is wrong with this logic?










    share|improve this question



























      3












      3








      3








      Let's say I have $100 in short term capital gains this year. I will need to pay taxes on this gains at the my ordinary tax rate (which we shall assume is 37%).



      Let's also say there is a stock that has a dividend in December. It's $1000 stock and the dividend amount is $10. Let's also assume this stock has very low volatility.



      So I buy 10 shares for $1000, collect the dividend, then sell the 10 shares for $990.



      I've wiped out my short term capital gains. And now I only need to pay taxes on the dividend (which is a much lower rate than 37%).



      What is wrong with this logic?










      share|improve this question
















      Let's say I have $100 in short term capital gains this year. I will need to pay taxes on this gains at the my ordinary tax rate (which we shall assume is 37%).



      Let's also say there is a stock that has a dividend in December. It's $1000 stock and the dividend amount is $10. Let's also assume this stock has very low volatility.



      So I buy 10 shares for $1000, collect the dividend, then sell the 10 shares for $990.



      I've wiped out my short term capital gains. And now I only need to pay taxes on the dividend (which is a much lower rate than 37%).



      What is wrong with this logic?







      united-states taxes capital-gains-tax dividends






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 5 hours ago









      Chris W. Rea

      26.6k1587174




      26.6k1587174










      asked 9 hours ago









      JPNJPN

      1565




      1565






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          6














          (Assuming US tax jurisdiction based on use of $)



          Unless I'm missing something, short-term capital gains and dividends are both treated like ordinary income and taxed at your marginal tax rate, so there is no tax advantage in converting short-term gains into dividends. The 37% you quote is the highest tax bracket and only applied to income (including capital gains and dividends) over $500,000+ (roughly).



          A better option from a pure tax standpoint would be to realize long-term losses by selling securities that you have held for more than a year and are underwater. The long-term losses (which normally would reduce your tax by a lower percentage) can offset short-term gains that are taxed at a higher percentage, for a net tax benefit. This is referred to at "tax loss harvesting".






          share|improve this answer


























          • It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago











          • I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

            – Barmar
            1 hour ago



















          4














          Adding to D Stanley's answer, dividends are either Qualified or Ordinary. Qualified dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. Ordinary dividends are taxed as ordinary income.



          In order for a dividend to be Qualified it must be:




          • issued by a U.S. corporation, by a foreign corporation that trades on a major U.S. exchange, or by a corporation incorporated in a U.S. possession.


          • The shares must have been owned for more than 60 days of the "holding period" which is defined as the 121 day period that begins 60 days before the ex-dividend date.







          share|improve this answer
























          • Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago



















          0














          Assumes United States tax rates (no country specified, but dollar sign ($) used in question)




          What is wrong





          1. Your biggest problem is that you have $100 in short term capital gains. Avoid those when you can, since you don't seem to currently have existing losses to realize against them.

            Hold everything (that you can) 12 months so you are paying the long term capital gains rate instead of the short term rate.


          2. Creating a loss to offset a gain is almost always a bad idea.

            Yes, I saw that the dividend offsets the loss - doesn't change my advice.


          3. You don't specify that you'll buy the dividend in time to get the good rate.



          4. 37% is too high for your assumption.

            (If you are adding your state income tax rate to get up to this number... you shouldn't)

            37% is probably 60%-70% higher than the rate you should be using.




            • If you make $100k with $10 in itemized deductions your overall rate is in the low 20%'s

              (22 is 67% less than 37).

            • If you are making more than $200k, you should probably have a tax adviser

              your income is still less than half way to the max 37% marginal tax rate.

            • If you are making more than $500k, you should already have a tax adviser - who can teach you that... although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates.








          share|improve this answer



















          • 4





            "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 3





            Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

            – David Schwartz
            6 hours ago





















          0














          With mutual funds, REIT's, and BDC's, a dividend earned in one year but with a payment date in the next year is then taxed in the year paid. So buy this situation the day before the ex-dividend date and sell on the ex-dividend date as expecting the security to drop by the amount of the dividend. A capital-loss is realized in the current year while the dividend earned is realized in the next year.



          However, buying a security the day before the ex-dividend date and selling on the ex-dividend date is a bet on the next day's market open.



          Of course closed-end-funds are mutual funds that trade like stocks. REIT's and BDC's trade as stocks.






          share|improve this answer


























            Your Answer








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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes








            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            6














            (Assuming US tax jurisdiction based on use of $)



            Unless I'm missing something, short-term capital gains and dividends are both treated like ordinary income and taxed at your marginal tax rate, so there is no tax advantage in converting short-term gains into dividends. The 37% you quote is the highest tax bracket and only applied to income (including capital gains and dividends) over $500,000+ (roughly).



            A better option from a pure tax standpoint would be to realize long-term losses by selling securities that you have held for more than a year and are underwater. The long-term losses (which normally would reduce your tax by a lower percentage) can offset short-term gains that are taxed at a higher percentage, for a net tax benefit. This is referred to at "tax loss harvesting".






            share|improve this answer


























            • It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago











            • I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

              – Barmar
              1 hour ago
















            6














            (Assuming US tax jurisdiction based on use of $)



            Unless I'm missing something, short-term capital gains and dividends are both treated like ordinary income and taxed at your marginal tax rate, so there is no tax advantage in converting short-term gains into dividends. The 37% you quote is the highest tax bracket and only applied to income (including capital gains and dividends) over $500,000+ (roughly).



            A better option from a pure tax standpoint would be to realize long-term losses by selling securities that you have held for more than a year and are underwater. The long-term losses (which normally would reduce your tax by a lower percentage) can offset short-term gains that are taxed at a higher percentage, for a net tax benefit. This is referred to at "tax loss harvesting".






            share|improve this answer


























            • It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago











            • I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

              – Barmar
              1 hour ago














            6












            6








            6







            (Assuming US tax jurisdiction based on use of $)



            Unless I'm missing something, short-term capital gains and dividends are both treated like ordinary income and taxed at your marginal tax rate, so there is no tax advantage in converting short-term gains into dividends. The 37% you quote is the highest tax bracket and only applied to income (including capital gains and dividends) over $500,000+ (roughly).



            A better option from a pure tax standpoint would be to realize long-term losses by selling securities that you have held for more than a year and are underwater. The long-term losses (which normally would reduce your tax by a lower percentage) can offset short-term gains that are taxed at a higher percentage, for a net tax benefit. This is referred to at "tax loss harvesting".






            share|improve this answer















            (Assuming US tax jurisdiction based on use of $)



            Unless I'm missing something, short-term capital gains and dividends are both treated like ordinary income and taxed at your marginal tax rate, so there is no tax advantage in converting short-term gains into dividends. The 37% you quote is the highest tax bracket and only applied to income (including capital gains and dividends) over $500,000+ (roughly).



            A better option from a pure tax standpoint would be to realize long-term losses by selling securities that you have held for more than a year and are underwater. The long-term losses (which normally would reduce your tax by a lower percentage) can offset short-term gains that are taxed at a higher percentage, for a net tax benefit. This is referred to at "tax loss harvesting".







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited 9 hours ago

























            answered 9 hours ago









            D StanleyD Stanley

            58.3k10169176




            58.3k10169176













            • It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago











            • I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

              – Barmar
              1 hour ago



















            • It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago











            • I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

              – Barmar
              1 hour ago

















            It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago





            It appears that you are missing something, per BobBaerker (qualified dividends are taxed at a lower rate).

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago













            I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

            – Barmar
            1 hour ago





            I think LT losses are first used to offset LT gains, and ST losses offset ST gains. You can only use them to reduce the other type if you have an excess of losses over gains within the same type. You can also use up to $3,000 in net losses to reduce ordinary income, the rest is carried forward.

            – Barmar
            1 hour ago













            4














            Adding to D Stanley's answer, dividends are either Qualified or Ordinary. Qualified dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. Ordinary dividends are taxed as ordinary income.



            In order for a dividend to be Qualified it must be:




            • issued by a U.S. corporation, by a foreign corporation that trades on a major U.S. exchange, or by a corporation incorporated in a U.S. possession.


            • The shares must have been owned for more than 60 days of the "holding period" which is defined as the 121 day period that begins 60 days before the ex-dividend date.







            share|improve this answer
























            • Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago
















            4














            Adding to D Stanley's answer, dividends are either Qualified or Ordinary. Qualified dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. Ordinary dividends are taxed as ordinary income.



            In order for a dividend to be Qualified it must be:




            • issued by a U.S. corporation, by a foreign corporation that trades on a major U.S. exchange, or by a corporation incorporated in a U.S. possession.


            • The shares must have been owned for more than 60 days of the "holding period" which is defined as the 121 day period that begins 60 days before the ex-dividend date.







            share|improve this answer
























            • Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago














            4












            4








            4







            Adding to D Stanley's answer, dividends are either Qualified or Ordinary. Qualified dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. Ordinary dividends are taxed as ordinary income.



            In order for a dividend to be Qualified it must be:




            • issued by a U.S. corporation, by a foreign corporation that trades on a major U.S. exchange, or by a corporation incorporated in a U.S. possession.


            • The shares must have been owned for more than 60 days of the "holding period" which is defined as the 121 day period that begins 60 days before the ex-dividend date.







            share|improve this answer













            Adding to D Stanley's answer, dividends are either Qualified or Ordinary. Qualified dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. Ordinary dividends are taxed as ordinary income.



            In order for a dividend to be Qualified it must be:




            • issued by a U.S. corporation, by a foreign corporation that trades on a major U.S. exchange, or by a corporation incorporated in a U.S. possession.


            • The shares must have been owned for more than 60 days of the "holding period" which is defined as the 121 day period that begins 60 days before the ex-dividend date.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 8 hours ago









            Bob BaerkerBob Baerker

            18.6k22754




            18.6k22754













            • Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago



















            • Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

              – nanoman
              1 hour ago

















            Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago





            Can you include the implication for OP's question, since you seem to be making an important correction to D Stanley's answer? This means that generating a capital loss plus a qualified dividend is a valid tax strategy (if you have no other loss harvesting option and can accept the risk of holding for 60 days), right?

            – nanoman
            1 hour ago











            0














            Assumes United States tax rates (no country specified, but dollar sign ($) used in question)




            What is wrong





            1. Your biggest problem is that you have $100 in short term capital gains. Avoid those when you can, since you don't seem to currently have existing losses to realize against them.

              Hold everything (that you can) 12 months so you are paying the long term capital gains rate instead of the short term rate.


            2. Creating a loss to offset a gain is almost always a bad idea.

              Yes, I saw that the dividend offsets the loss - doesn't change my advice.


            3. You don't specify that you'll buy the dividend in time to get the good rate.



            4. 37% is too high for your assumption.

              (If you are adding your state income tax rate to get up to this number... you shouldn't)

              37% is probably 60%-70% higher than the rate you should be using.




              • If you make $100k with $10 in itemized deductions your overall rate is in the low 20%'s

                (22 is 67% less than 37).

              • If you are making more than $200k, you should probably have a tax adviser

                your income is still less than half way to the max 37% marginal tax rate.

              • If you are making more than $500k, you should already have a tax adviser - who can teach you that... although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates.








            share|improve this answer



















            • 4





              "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

              – Acccumulation
              7 hours ago






            • 3





              Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

              – David Schwartz
              6 hours ago


















            0














            Assumes United States tax rates (no country specified, but dollar sign ($) used in question)




            What is wrong





            1. Your biggest problem is that you have $100 in short term capital gains. Avoid those when you can, since you don't seem to currently have existing losses to realize against them.

              Hold everything (that you can) 12 months so you are paying the long term capital gains rate instead of the short term rate.


            2. Creating a loss to offset a gain is almost always a bad idea.

              Yes, I saw that the dividend offsets the loss - doesn't change my advice.


            3. You don't specify that you'll buy the dividend in time to get the good rate.



            4. 37% is too high for your assumption.

              (If you are adding your state income tax rate to get up to this number... you shouldn't)

              37% is probably 60%-70% higher than the rate you should be using.




              • If you make $100k with $10 in itemized deductions your overall rate is in the low 20%'s

                (22 is 67% less than 37).

              • If you are making more than $200k, you should probably have a tax adviser

                your income is still less than half way to the max 37% marginal tax rate.

              • If you are making more than $500k, you should already have a tax adviser - who can teach you that... although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates.








            share|improve this answer



















            • 4





              "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

              – Acccumulation
              7 hours ago






            • 3





              Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

              – David Schwartz
              6 hours ago
















            0












            0








            0







            Assumes United States tax rates (no country specified, but dollar sign ($) used in question)




            What is wrong





            1. Your biggest problem is that you have $100 in short term capital gains. Avoid those when you can, since you don't seem to currently have existing losses to realize against them.

              Hold everything (that you can) 12 months so you are paying the long term capital gains rate instead of the short term rate.


            2. Creating a loss to offset a gain is almost always a bad idea.

              Yes, I saw that the dividend offsets the loss - doesn't change my advice.


            3. You don't specify that you'll buy the dividend in time to get the good rate.



            4. 37% is too high for your assumption.

              (If you are adding your state income tax rate to get up to this number... you shouldn't)

              37% is probably 60%-70% higher than the rate you should be using.




              • If you make $100k with $10 in itemized deductions your overall rate is in the low 20%'s

                (22 is 67% less than 37).

              • If you are making more than $200k, you should probably have a tax adviser

                your income is still less than half way to the max 37% marginal tax rate.

              • If you are making more than $500k, you should already have a tax adviser - who can teach you that... although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates.








            share|improve this answer













            Assumes United States tax rates (no country specified, but dollar sign ($) used in question)




            What is wrong





            1. Your biggest problem is that you have $100 in short term capital gains. Avoid those when you can, since you don't seem to currently have existing losses to realize against them.

              Hold everything (that you can) 12 months so you are paying the long term capital gains rate instead of the short term rate.


            2. Creating a loss to offset a gain is almost always a bad idea.

              Yes, I saw that the dividend offsets the loss - doesn't change my advice.


            3. You don't specify that you'll buy the dividend in time to get the good rate.



            4. 37% is too high for your assumption.

              (If you are adding your state income tax rate to get up to this number... you shouldn't)

              37% is probably 60%-70% higher than the rate you should be using.




              • If you make $100k with $10 in itemized deductions your overall rate is in the low 20%'s

                (22 is 67% less than 37).

              • If you are making more than $200k, you should probably have a tax adviser

                your income is still less than half way to the max 37% marginal tax rate.

              • If you are making more than $500k, you should already have a tax adviser - who can teach you that... although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates.









            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 7 hours ago









            J. Chris ComptonJ. Chris Compton

            1,141210




            1,141210








            • 4





              "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

              – Acccumulation
              7 hours ago






            • 3





              Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

              – David Schwartz
              6 hours ago
















            • 4





              "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

              – Acccumulation
              7 hours ago






            • 3





              Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

              – David Schwartz
              6 hours ago










            4




            4





            "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago





            "although you are actually in the 37% tax bracket... you aren't paying that much overall because the fist $500k is taxed at lower rates." But the OP is discussing an attempt to avoid tax liability by cancelling, which by definition refers to the marginal tax rate.

            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago




            3




            3





            Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

            – David Schwartz
            6 hours ago







            Why shouldn't he add in his State income tax rate? And see Accumulation's explanation for why only marginal tax rates matter when you are comparing strategies.

            – David Schwartz
            6 hours ago













            0














            With mutual funds, REIT's, and BDC's, a dividend earned in one year but with a payment date in the next year is then taxed in the year paid. So buy this situation the day before the ex-dividend date and sell on the ex-dividend date as expecting the security to drop by the amount of the dividend. A capital-loss is realized in the current year while the dividend earned is realized in the next year.



            However, buying a security the day before the ex-dividend date and selling on the ex-dividend date is a bet on the next day's market open.



            Of course closed-end-funds are mutual funds that trade like stocks. REIT's and BDC's trade as stocks.






            share|improve this answer






























              0














              With mutual funds, REIT's, and BDC's, a dividend earned in one year but with a payment date in the next year is then taxed in the year paid. So buy this situation the day before the ex-dividend date and sell on the ex-dividend date as expecting the security to drop by the amount of the dividend. A capital-loss is realized in the current year while the dividend earned is realized in the next year.



              However, buying a security the day before the ex-dividend date and selling on the ex-dividend date is a bet on the next day's market open.



              Of course closed-end-funds are mutual funds that trade like stocks. REIT's and BDC's trade as stocks.






              share|improve this answer




























                0












                0








                0







                With mutual funds, REIT's, and BDC's, a dividend earned in one year but with a payment date in the next year is then taxed in the year paid. So buy this situation the day before the ex-dividend date and sell on the ex-dividend date as expecting the security to drop by the amount of the dividend. A capital-loss is realized in the current year while the dividend earned is realized in the next year.



                However, buying a security the day before the ex-dividend date and selling on the ex-dividend date is a bet on the next day's market open.



                Of course closed-end-funds are mutual funds that trade like stocks. REIT's and BDC's trade as stocks.






                share|improve this answer















                With mutual funds, REIT's, and BDC's, a dividend earned in one year but with a payment date in the next year is then taxed in the year paid. So buy this situation the day before the ex-dividend date and sell on the ex-dividend date as expecting the security to drop by the amount of the dividend. A capital-loss is realized in the current year while the dividend earned is realized in the next year.



                However, buying a security the day before the ex-dividend date and selling on the ex-dividend date is a bet on the next day's market open.



                Of course closed-end-funds are mutual funds that trade like stocks. REIT's and BDC's trade as stocks.







                share|improve this answer














                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer








                edited 1 hour ago

























                answered 2 hours ago









                S SpringS Spring

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