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Could a guilty Boris Johnson be used to cancel Brexit?


“False advertising” in political campaigns?Could the Queen have stopped Brexit?Could the devolved UK administrations legislate directly for Brexit?Why do the Tories keep Boris Johnson around?What are the main differences between UK and US (NEP) exit polls, methodologically?Why do UK citizens feel “that only the British (and perhaps the Swiss) are properly democratic”?Could the UK unilaterally “restart the clock” on Brexit?Why did the UK not have any post-EU exit deals agreed prior to June 2016?Could Sinn Fein swing any Brexit vote in Parliament?Can the Queen still cancel Brexit?













5















This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.



Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.










share|improve this question


















  • 2





    This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

    – Orangesandlemons
    6 hours ago






  • 3





    @Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

    – Time4Tea
    4 hours ago
















5















This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.



Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.










share|improve this question


















  • 2





    This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

    – Orangesandlemons
    6 hours ago






  • 3





    @Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

    – Time4Tea
    4 hours ago














5












5








5








This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.



Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.










share|improve this question














This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.



Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.







united-kingdom brexit






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 9 hours ago









MocasMocas

786718




786718








  • 2





    This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

    – Orangesandlemons
    6 hours ago






  • 3





    @Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

    – Time4Tea
    4 hours ago














  • 2





    This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

    – Orangesandlemons
    6 hours ago






  • 3





    @Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

    – Time4Tea
    4 hours ago








2




2





This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

– Orangesandlemons
6 hours ago





This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.

– Orangesandlemons
6 hours ago




3




3





@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

– Time4Tea
4 hours ago





@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)

– Time4Tea
4 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















14














No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.



Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2





    The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

    – Lag
    6 hours ago












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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









14














No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.



Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2





    The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

    – Lag
    6 hours ago
















14














No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.



Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2





    The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

    – Lag
    6 hours ago














14












14








14







No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.



Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.






share|improve this answer













No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.



Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 9 hours ago









o.m.o.m.

14.4k22959




14.4k22959








  • 2





    The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

    – Lag
    6 hours ago














  • 2





    The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

    – Lag
    6 hours ago








2




2





The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

– Lag
6 hours ago





The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…

– Lag
6 hours ago


















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