How could empty set be unique if it could be vacuously falseHow does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the...
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How could empty set be unique if it could be vacuously false
How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?For every set $A$, the empty set is a subset of $A$. The empty set is a set. Therefore, the empty set has a cardinality $geq 1ldots$Proving that the empty set is uniqueset definitions with empty setvacuous truth -> empty set is both included and not included in every set?If $A$ is an empty set, how should I understand $forall xin A$?What happens if the empty set is not a subset of every set?Empty set, subsets, and vacuous truthsIs empty set a subset of every set direct proof confusionAxiom of extensionality inconsistent with empty set?My proof that the empty set is unique
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}
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The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.
elementary-set-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.
elementary-set-theory
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1
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There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
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– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
1
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See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.
elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.
elementary-set-theory
elementary-set-theory
edited 12 hours ago
Asaf Karagila♦
312k33446781
312k33446781
asked 12 hours ago
AnonymousAnonymous
565
565
1
$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago
1
1
$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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oldest
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$begingroup$
But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.
$endgroup$
But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.
edited 11 hours ago
answered 12 hours ago
ArthurArthur
129k7124216
129k7124216
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.
$endgroup$
Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.
answered 12 hours ago
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
193k24148266
193k24148266
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago