How could empty set be unique if it could be vacuously falseHow does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the...

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How could empty set be unique if it could be vacuously false


How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?For every set $A$, the empty set is a subset of $A$. The empty set is a set. Therefore, the empty set has a cardinality $geq 1ldots$Proving that the empty set is uniqueset definitions with empty setvacuous truth -> empty set is both included and not included in every set?If $A$ is an empty set, how should I understand $forall xin A$?What happens if the empty set is not a subset of every set?Empty set, subsets, and vacuous truthsIs empty set a subset of every set direct proof confusionAxiom of extensionality inconsistent with empty set?My proof that the empty set is unique






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
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$begingroup$


The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    20 mins ago


















5












$begingroup$


The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    20 mins ago














5












5








5





$begingroup$


The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The argument that people use to prove that empty set is unique is that: Let $A$ and $B$ be two empty sets then $forall z : z in A implies z in B$ since there is no such $xin A$ hence this statement is vacuously true. Also the converse is true therefore $A=B$. My objection is we could have equally stated $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ and thus conclude that $Aneq B$.







elementary-set-theory






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edited 12 hours ago









Asaf Karagila

312k33446781




312k33446781










asked 12 hours ago









AnonymousAnonymous

565




565








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    20 mins ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    20 mins ago








1




1




$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago






$begingroup$
There is no way however that the antecedent $zin A$ is true. A false $rightarrow$ false conditional is true.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
12 hours ago






1




1




$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
See How does the Axiom of Extensionality prove the uniqueness of Specified sets?
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
11 hours ago












$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago




$begingroup$
Or, $forall z : z in A implies z notin B$ doesn't imply that $Aneq B$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
20 mins ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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23












$begingroup$

But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    16












    $begingroup$

    Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      23












      $begingroup$

      But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        23












        $begingroup$

        But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          23












          23








          23





          $begingroup$

          But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          But that's not how you negate $A = B$. For two sets to be non-equal, you have to actually find an element which is in one of the two sets, and not the other. The negation of a statement beginning with $forall$ is a statement beginning with $exists$. And if you carefully state "$Aneq B$" with the correct quantifiers and implications, and assume $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then you will find that $Aneq B$ is actually not true.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 11 hours ago

























          answered 12 hours ago









          ArthurArthur

          129k7124216




          129k7124216

























              16












              $begingroup$

              Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                16












                $begingroup$

                Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  16












                  16








                  16





                  $begingroup$

                  Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Indeed, $forall z:zin Aimplies znotin B$. And, by the same argument, $forall z:zin Bimplies znotin A$. But all that you deduce from this is that $Acap B=emptyset$. There is no contradiction here.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 12 hours ago









                  José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                  193k24148266




                  193k24148266






























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