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A question about dihedral group


Prove a group generated by two involutions is dihedralInfinite Dihedral Group.How to show that this group presentation is isomorphic to dihedral group?Trying to understand group presentations using the example of the Dihedral groupObtaining a presentation of the dihedral group from a semidirect productDihedral Group question involving $D_{4n}$A question about isomorphic of dihedral groupHow to prove isomorphism with the Dihedral group






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$begingroup$


The presentation of the dihedral group is
$$
D_{2n}= langle r,s mid r^{n}=s^{2}=1, (sr)^2=1 rangle.
$$

Now, let $G$ be a group of order $2n$. Is it true that if $G$ contains two elements $a,b$ such that $ord(a)=n$, $ord(b)=2$ and $ord(ba)=2$, then $Gcong D_{2n}$ ?



Edit: If not, what are the conditions that $G$ has to fulfill in order to be isomorphic to $D_{2n}$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$


    The presentation of the dihedral group is
    $$
    D_{2n}= langle r,s mid r^{n}=s^{2}=1, (sr)^2=1 rangle.
    $$

    Now, let $G$ be a group of order $2n$. Is it true that if $G$ contains two elements $a,b$ such that $ord(a)=n$, $ord(b)=2$ and $ord(ba)=2$, then $Gcong D_{2n}$ ?



    Edit: If not, what are the conditions that $G$ has to fulfill in order to be isomorphic to $D_{2n}$ ?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$

















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      The presentation of the dihedral group is
      $$
      D_{2n}= langle r,s mid r^{n}=s^{2}=1, (sr)^2=1 rangle.
      $$

      Now, let $G$ be a group of order $2n$. Is it true that if $G$ contains two elements $a,b$ such that $ord(a)=n$, $ord(b)=2$ and $ord(ba)=2$, then $Gcong D_{2n}$ ?



      Edit: If not, what are the conditions that $G$ has to fulfill in order to be isomorphic to $D_{2n}$ ?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      The presentation of the dihedral group is
      $$
      D_{2n}= langle r,s mid r^{n}=s^{2}=1, (sr)^2=1 rangle.
      $$

      Now, let $G$ be a group of order $2n$. Is it true that if $G$ contains two elements $a,b$ such that $ord(a)=n$, $ord(b)=2$ and $ord(ba)=2$, then $Gcong D_{2n}$ ?



      Edit: If not, what are the conditions that $G$ has to fulfill in order to be isomorphic to $D_{2n}$ ?







      group-theory group-presentation dihedral-groups finitely-generated






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 5 hours ago









      Shaun

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      11.6k12 gold badges37 silver badges92 bronze badges










      asked 9 hours ago









      boazboaz

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          2 Answers
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          4













          $begingroup$

          YES, it is. Let's call $G_0$ your presentation of $D_{2n}$. The universal property of $G_0$ tells you that there is a morphism $G_0to G$ which sends $r$ to $a$ dand $s$ to $b$.



          Claim. $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.



          For, it is enough to show that the various elements $a^k, ba^ell$ are pairwise distinct (where $0leq k,ellleq n-1$).



          The only non trivial thing to prove is that $a^k= ba^ell $ for some $k,ell$ cannot happen. Assume the contrary, so that $b=a^m, m=k-ell$, so $-(n-1)leq mleq n-1$.
          Taking inverse and using the fact that $b$ has order $2$, one may assume that $0leq mleq n-1$.



          The order of $b$ is $2$, so if $n$ is odd it cannot happen. Write $n=2r$. Then $b=a^r$, the unique element of order of the cyclic group generated by $a$. Now $ba=a^{r+1}$, which has order $2r/gcd(2r,r+1)$. Now $gcd (2r,r+1)$ is $1$ or $2$ since $2(r+1)-2r=2$. Consequently, $o(ba)=2r$ or
          $r$.



          Therefore, if $rgeq 3$ you have a contradiction. If $r=2$, o$(a^3)=4$ and you have a contradiction again.



          To sum up, $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.
          Hence the morphism above is surjective, hence bijective.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$























            3













            $begingroup$

            The answer is yes



            Proof:



            Note that $[G:langle arangle]=2$ so $langle a rangle$ is normal in $G$.



            We also have $baba=1$ so $b^{-1}ab=a^{-1}$.



            This means $Gcong C_nrtimes C_2=D_{2n}$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















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              2 Answers
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              $begingroup$

              YES, it is. Let's call $G_0$ your presentation of $D_{2n}$. The universal property of $G_0$ tells you that there is a morphism $G_0to G$ which sends $r$ to $a$ dand $s$ to $b$.



              Claim. $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.



              For, it is enough to show that the various elements $a^k, ba^ell$ are pairwise distinct (where $0leq k,ellleq n-1$).



              The only non trivial thing to prove is that $a^k= ba^ell $ for some $k,ell$ cannot happen. Assume the contrary, so that $b=a^m, m=k-ell$, so $-(n-1)leq mleq n-1$.
              Taking inverse and using the fact that $b$ has order $2$, one may assume that $0leq mleq n-1$.



              The order of $b$ is $2$, so if $n$ is odd it cannot happen. Write $n=2r$. Then $b=a^r$, the unique element of order of the cyclic group generated by $a$. Now $ba=a^{r+1}$, which has order $2r/gcd(2r,r+1)$. Now $gcd (2r,r+1)$ is $1$ or $2$ since $2(r+1)-2r=2$. Consequently, $o(ba)=2r$ or
              $r$.



              Therefore, if $rgeq 3$ you have a contradiction. If $r=2$, o$(a^3)=4$ and you have a contradiction again.



              To sum up, $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.
              Hence the morphism above is surjective, hence bijective.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$




















                4













                $begingroup$

                YES, it is. Let's call $G_0$ your presentation of $D_{2n}$. The universal property of $G_0$ tells you that there is a morphism $G_0to G$ which sends $r$ to $a$ dand $s$ to $b$.



                Claim. $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.



                For, it is enough to show that the various elements $a^k, ba^ell$ are pairwise distinct (where $0leq k,ellleq n-1$).



                The only non trivial thing to prove is that $a^k= ba^ell $ for some $k,ell$ cannot happen. Assume the contrary, so that $b=a^m, m=k-ell$, so $-(n-1)leq mleq n-1$.
                Taking inverse and using the fact that $b$ has order $2$, one may assume that $0leq mleq n-1$.



                The order of $b$ is $2$, so if $n$ is odd it cannot happen. Write $n=2r$. Then $b=a^r$, the unique element of order of the cyclic group generated by $a$. Now $ba=a^{r+1}$, which has order $2r/gcd(2r,r+1)$. Now $gcd (2r,r+1)$ is $1$ or $2$ since $2(r+1)-2r=2$. Consequently, $o(ba)=2r$ or
                $r$.



                Therefore, if $rgeq 3$ you have a contradiction. If $r=2$, o$(a^3)=4$ and you have a contradiction again.



                To sum up, $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.
                Hence the morphism above is surjective, hence bijective.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  4














                  4










                  4







                  $begingroup$

                  YES, it is. Let's call $G_0$ your presentation of $D_{2n}$. The universal property of $G_0$ tells you that there is a morphism $G_0to G$ which sends $r$ to $a$ dand $s$ to $b$.



                  Claim. $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.



                  For, it is enough to show that the various elements $a^k, ba^ell$ are pairwise distinct (where $0leq k,ellleq n-1$).



                  The only non trivial thing to prove is that $a^k= ba^ell $ for some $k,ell$ cannot happen. Assume the contrary, so that $b=a^m, m=k-ell$, so $-(n-1)leq mleq n-1$.
                  Taking inverse and using the fact that $b$ has order $2$, one may assume that $0leq mleq n-1$.



                  The order of $b$ is $2$, so if $n$ is odd it cannot happen. Write $n=2r$. Then $b=a^r$, the unique element of order of the cyclic group generated by $a$. Now $ba=a^{r+1}$, which has order $2r/gcd(2r,r+1)$. Now $gcd (2r,r+1)$ is $1$ or $2$ since $2(r+1)-2r=2$. Consequently, $o(ba)=2r$ or
                  $r$.



                  Therefore, if $rgeq 3$ you have a contradiction. If $r=2$, o$(a^3)=4$ and you have a contradiction again.



                  To sum up, $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.
                  Hence the morphism above is surjective, hence bijective.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  YES, it is. Let's call $G_0$ your presentation of $D_{2n}$. The universal property of $G_0$ tells you that there is a morphism $G_0to G$ which sends $r$ to $a$ dand $s$ to $b$.



                  Claim. $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.



                  For, it is enough to show that the various elements $a^k, ba^ell$ are pairwise distinct (where $0leq k,ellleq n-1$).



                  The only non trivial thing to prove is that $a^k= ba^ell $ for some $k,ell$ cannot happen. Assume the contrary, so that $b=a^m, m=k-ell$, so $-(n-1)leq mleq n-1$.
                  Taking inverse and using the fact that $b$ has order $2$, one may assume that $0leq mleq n-1$.



                  The order of $b$ is $2$, so if $n$ is odd it cannot happen. Write $n=2r$. Then $b=a^r$, the unique element of order of the cyclic group generated by $a$. Now $ba=a^{r+1}$, which has order $2r/gcd(2r,r+1)$. Now $gcd (2r,r+1)$ is $1$ or $2$ since $2(r+1)-2r=2$. Consequently, $o(ba)=2r$ or
                  $r$.



                  Therefore, if $rgeq 3$ you have a contradiction. If $r=2$, o$(a^3)=4$ and you have a contradiction again.



                  To sum up, $G$ is generated by $a$ and $b$.
                  Hence the morphism above is surjective, hence bijective.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 9 hours ago









                  GreginGreGreginGre

                  1,7723 silver badges10 bronze badges




                  1,7723 silver badges10 bronze badges




























                      3













                      $begingroup$

                      The answer is yes



                      Proof:



                      Note that $[G:langle arangle]=2$ so $langle a rangle$ is normal in $G$.



                      We also have $baba=1$ so $b^{-1}ab=a^{-1}$.



                      This means $Gcong C_nrtimes C_2=D_{2n}$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$




















                        3













                        $begingroup$

                        The answer is yes



                        Proof:



                        Note that $[G:langle arangle]=2$ so $langle a rangle$ is normal in $G$.



                        We also have $baba=1$ so $b^{-1}ab=a^{-1}$.



                        This means $Gcong C_nrtimes C_2=D_{2n}$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          3














                          3










                          3







                          $begingroup$

                          The answer is yes



                          Proof:



                          Note that $[G:langle arangle]=2$ so $langle a rangle$ is normal in $G$.



                          We also have $baba=1$ so $b^{-1}ab=a^{-1}$.



                          This means $Gcong C_nrtimes C_2=D_{2n}$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The answer is yes



                          Proof:



                          Note that $[G:langle arangle]=2$ so $langle a rangle$ is normal in $G$.



                          We also have $baba=1$ so $b^{-1}ab=a^{-1}$.



                          This means $Gcong C_nrtimes C_2=D_{2n}$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 9 hours ago









                          Robert ChamberlainRobert Chamberlain

                          5,0191 gold badge7 silver badges21 bronze badges




                          5,0191 gold badge7 silver badges21 bronze badges

































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