If you draw two cards in consecutively in a standard deck of 52 cards, what is the probability of getting...

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If you draw two cards in consecutively in a standard deck of 52 cards, what is the probability of getting black on the second draw?


Probability of getting two black ballsThe Deck of cards!Probability of cards drawn from a deckConditional Probability Problem (3 Cards, 1 red-red, 1 red-black, 1 black-black)Two Cards are drawn from the standard deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that the ff. occur?What is the amount of draws necessary to see all red cards from a standard deck of 52 cards if you draw 5 cards from the deck?Calculate the probability that the $i$-th draw returns a red ball.What is the probability that when 5 cards are picked out of a standard, 52-card deck, they alternate in color






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$begingroup$


This is my thought process:



$P(2^{nd} text{black}) = P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{red}) P(1^{st} text{red}) + P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{black}) P(1^{st} text{black}) $



$frac{26}{51}*frac{26}{52} + frac{25}{51}*frac{26}{52} = frac{1}{2} $



Is this correct?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes you are right.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    9 hours ago


















3












$begingroup$


This is my thought process:



$P(2^{nd} text{black}) = P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{red}) P(1^{st} text{red}) + P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{black}) P(1^{st} text{black}) $



$frac{26}{51}*frac{26}{52} + frac{25}{51}*frac{26}{52} = frac{1}{2} $



Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



atn is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$










  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes you are right.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    9 hours ago














3












3








3





$begingroup$


This is my thought process:



$P(2^{nd} text{black}) = P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{red}) P(1^{st} text{red}) + P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{black}) P(1^{st} text{black}) $



$frac{26}{51}*frac{26}{52} + frac{25}{51}*frac{26}{52} = frac{1}{2} $



Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



atn is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$




This is my thought process:



$P(2^{nd} text{black}) = P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{red}) P(1^{st} text{red}) + P(2^{nd} text{black} mid 1^{st} text{black}) P(1^{st} text{black}) $



$frac{26}{51}*frac{26}{52} + frac{25}{51}*frac{26}{52} = frac{1}{2} $



Is this correct?







probability






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



atn is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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share|cite|improve this question









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edited 9 hours ago









cmk

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asked 9 hours ago









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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes you are right.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    9 hours ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes you are right.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    9 hours ago








1




1




$begingroup$
Yes you are right.
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Yes you are right.
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
9 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2














$begingroup$

Yes, it is correct.



Sanity check: By symmetry, the likelihood to get a black is equal to the probability og getting a red at any draw position.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$















  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
    $endgroup$
    – atn
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
    $endgroup$
    – Siong Thye Goh
    9 hours ago



















2














$begingroup$

Yes you are right.



The intuition behind why your answer is symmetrically ${1over 2}$ is that if you first draw a card and close your eyes over its color (e.g. throw it away), you are in a full ambiguity or lack of information about the color of the second one. Hence the probability is the same.



This is also the same case for any number of color types and drawing the second card.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$























    1














    $begingroup$

    The "hard way":



    To get a black card on the second draw you must get either "red, black" or "black, black".



    1) "red, black": There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them red. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 26 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 26/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(26/51)= 13/51.



    2) "black, black: There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them black. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 25 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 25/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(25/51)= 25/102.



    The probability of either "red, black" or "black, black", since those are mutually exclusive, is 13/51+ 25/102= 26/102+ 25/102= 51/102= 1/2!






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2














      $begingroup$

      Yes, it is correct.



      Sanity check: By symmetry, the likelihood to get a black is equal to the probability og getting a red at any draw position.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
        $endgroup$
        – atn
        9 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
        $endgroup$
        – Siong Thye Goh
        9 hours ago
















      2














      $begingroup$

      Yes, it is correct.



      Sanity check: By symmetry, the likelihood to get a black is equal to the probability og getting a red at any draw position.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
        $endgroup$
        – atn
        9 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
        $endgroup$
        – Siong Thye Goh
        9 hours ago














      2














      2










      2







      $begingroup$

      Yes, it is correct.



      Sanity check: By symmetry, the likelihood to get a black is equal to the probability og getting a red at any draw position.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Yes, it is correct.



      Sanity check: By symmetry, the likelihood to get a black is equal to the probability og getting a red at any draw position.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 9 hours ago









      Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

      110k15 gold badges71 silver badges125 bronze badges




      110k15 gold badges71 silver badges125 bronze badges















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
        $endgroup$
        – atn
        9 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
        $endgroup$
        – Siong Thye Goh
        9 hours ago


















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
        $endgroup$
        – atn
        9 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
        $endgroup$
        – Siong Thye Goh
        9 hours ago
















      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
      $endgroup$
      – atn
      9 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "by symmetry"?
      $endgroup$
      – atn
      9 hours ago












      $begingroup$
      propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
      $endgroup$
      – Siong Thye Goh
      9 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      propotion of black and red are equal. It is like two equally competent player are playing a fair game, they are equally likely to win the game.
      $endgroup$
      – Siong Thye Goh
      9 hours ago













      2














      $begingroup$

      Yes you are right.



      The intuition behind why your answer is symmetrically ${1over 2}$ is that if you first draw a card and close your eyes over its color (e.g. throw it away), you are in a full ambiguity or lack of information about the color of the second one. Hence the probability is the same.



      This is also the same case for any number of color types and drawing the second card.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$




















        2














        $begingroup$

        Yes you are right.



        The intuition behind why your answer is symmetrically ${1over 2}$ is that if you first draw a card and close your eyes over its color (e.g. throw it away), you are in a full ambiguity or lack of information about the color of the second one. Hence the probability is the same.



        This is also the same case for any number of color types and drawing the second card.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          2














          2










          2







          $begingroup$

          Yes you are right.



          The intuition behind why your answer is symmetrically ${1over 2}$ is that if you first draw a card and close your eyes over its color (e.g. throw it away), you are in a full ambiguity or lack of information about the color of the second one. Hence the probability is the same.



          This is also the same case for any number of color types and drawing the second card.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Yes you are right.



          The intuition behind why your answer is symmetrically ${1over 2}$ is that if you first draw a card and close your eyes over its color (e.g. throw it away), you are in a full ambiguity or lack of information about the color of the second one. Hence the probability is the same.



          This is also the same case for any number of color types and drawing the second card.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 9 hours ago









          Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

          20.4k3 gold badges11 silver badges46 bronze badges




          20.4k3 gold badges11 silver badges46 bronze badges


























              1














              $begingroup$

              The "hard way":



              To get a black card on the second draw you must get either "red, black" or "black, black".



              1) "red, black": There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them red. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 26 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 26/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(26/51)= 13/51.



              2) "black, black: There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them black. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 25 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 25/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(25/51)= 25/102.



              The probability of either "red, black" or "black, black", since those are mutually exclusive, is 13/51+ 25/102= 26/102+ 25/102= 51/102= 1/2!






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$




















                1














                $begingroup$

                The "hard way":



                To get a black card on the second draw you must get either "red, black" or "black, black".



                1) "red, black": There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them red. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 26 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 26/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(26/51)= 13/51.



                2) "black, black: There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them black. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 25 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 25/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(25/51)= 25/102.



                The probability of either "red, black" or "black, black", since those are mutually exclusive, is 13/51+ 25/102= 26/102+ 25/102= 51/102= 1/2!






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  1














                  1










                  1







                  $begingroup$

                  The "hard way":



                  To get a black card on the second draw you must get either "red, black" or "black, black".



                  1) "red, black": There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them red. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 26 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 26/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(26/51)= 13/51.



                  2) "black, black: There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them black. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 25 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 25/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(25/51)= 25/102.



                  The probability of either "red, black" or "black, black", since those are mutually exclusive, is 13/51+ 25/102= 26/102+ 25/102= 51/102= 1/2!






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The "hard way":



                  To get a black card on the second draw you must get either "red, black" or "black, black".



                  1) "red, black": There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them red. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 26 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 26/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(26/51)= 13/51.



                  2) "black, black: There are 52 cards in the deck, 26 or them black. The probability the first card drawn is red is 26/52= 1/2. Given that, there are now 51 cards in the deck, 25 of them black. The probability the second card drawn is black is 25/51. The probability of "red, black" is (1/2)(25/51)= 25/102.



                  The probability of either "red, black" or "black, black", since those are mutually exclusive, is 13/51+ 25/102= 26/102+ 25/102= 51/102= 1/2!







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 8 hours ago









                  user247327user247327

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