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How to find parallel tangent lines


Finding equations of tangent lines that are parallelTangent lines to curve parallel to $x-4y = 2$Finding a tangent to an ellipse parallel to a given lineUse implicit differentiation to find tangent lines parallel to a given lineBasic Derivatives-finding tangent linesHow many lines tangent to the graph of $f$ are parallel to the lineEquation of two parallel tangent lines and coordinatesFind Equations of tangent linesFinding where two graphs have perpendicular tangent linesFind specific tangent lines of $y=2x^3-3x^2-12x+20$






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}







5












$begingroup$


I was given this problem:




Let $f$ be the function defined by $f(x)=e^{3x}$, and let $g$ be the function defined by $g(x)=x^3$. At what value of $x$ do the graphs of $f$ and $g$ have parallel tangent lines?




To solve this problem, I set the derivatives of $f$ and $g$ equal to each other: $3x^2=3e^{3x}$. Now, I just need to solve for $x$, but for some reason I am completely at a loss of how to do that. I divided the problem by $3$, which got me $x^2=e^{3x}$. But, now what?



I also plugged it into my calculators solver, which got me the correct answer: $-.484$. But, I don't know how to find that answer without solver.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





















    5












    $begingroup$


    I was given this problem:




    Let $f$ be the function defined by $f(x)=e^{3x}$, and let $g$ be the function defined by $g(x)=x^3$. At what value of $x$ do the graphs of $f$ and $g$ have parallel tangent lines?




    To solve this problem, I set the derivatives of $f$ and $g$ equal to each other: $3x^2=3e^{3x}$. Now, I just need to solve for $x$, but for some reason I am completely at a loss of how to do that. I divided the problem by $3$, which got me $x^2=e^{3x}$. But, now what?



    I also plugged it into my calculators solver, which got me the correct answer: $-.484$. But, I don't know how to find that answer without solver.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$

















      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$


      I was given this problem:




      Let $f$ be the function defined by $f(x)=e^{3x}$, and let $g$ be the function defined by $g(x)=x^3$. At what value of $x$ do the graphs of $f$ and $g$ have parallel tangent lines?




      To solve this problem, I set the derivatives of $f$ and $g$ equal to each other: $3x^2=3e^{3x}$. Now, I just need to solve for $x$, but for some reason I am completely at a loss of how to do that. I divided the problem by $3$, which got me $x^2=e^{3x}$. But, now what?



      I also plugged it into my calculators solver, which got me the correct answer: $-.484$. But, I don't know how to find that answer without solver.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I was given this problem:




      Let $f$ be the function defined by $f(x)=e^{3x}$, and let $g$ be the function defined by $g(x)=x^3$. At what value of $x$ do the graphs of $f$ and $g$ have parallel tangent lines?




      To solve this problem, I set the derivatives of $f$ and $g$ equal to each other: $3x^2=3e^{3x}$. Now, I just need to solve for $x$, but for some reason I am completely at a loss of how to do that. I divided the problem by $3$, which got me $x^2=e^{3x}$. But, now what?



      I also plugged it into my calculators solver, which got me the correct answer: $-.484$. But, I don't know how to find that answer without solver.







      calculus derivatives






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 7 hours ago









      Adrian Keister

      6,3727 gold badges22 silver badges33 bronze badges




      6,3727 gold badges22 silver badges33 bronze badges










      asked 8 hours ago









      burtburt

      13910 bronze badges




      13910 bronze badges

























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          This problem can be solved using the Lambert-W function as follows.
          $$x^2=e^{3x}$$
          $$sqrt{x^2}=sqrt{e^{3x}}$$
          $$x=pm e^{3x/2}$$
          $$-frac32 x=mpfrac32 e^{3x/2}$$
          $$-frac32 xe^{-3x/2}=mpfrac32$$
          $$-frac32 x=W_kleft(mpfrac32right)$$
          $$x=-frac23W_kleft(pmfrac32right)$$
          for any branch of the function $kinmathbb{Z}$. The only real solution would be when $k=0$ and $+$ is taken for the $pm$ giving
          $$x=-frac23W_0left(frac32right)approx-0.4839075718dots$$
          which is the value provided by your calculator.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$























            3












            $begingroup$

            Since the other answers provide the exact solution using the Lambert $W$ function, let me show you how you can prove that the equation $x^2 = e^{3x}$ has one and only one solution using elementary methods.



            Let $F(x) = x^2$ and $G(x) = e^{3x}$.



            If you plot $F$ and $G$ on the same plane, you can see that there is exactly one point $x$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Here $y = F(x)$ is in red and $y = G(x)$ is in blue:



            Intersection



            Now, if you want to prove that there is a unique solution to the equation, you can reason as follows.



            Consider first the interval $(-infty, 0]$.




            1. Since $F$ is decreasing and $G$ is increasing, there is at most one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.

            2. Since $F(-1) > G(-1)$ and $F(0) < G(0)$, there is at least one $x in (-1, 0)$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.


            Combining the two results, we know that there is exactly one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Moreover, $x in (-1, 0)$.



            For the interval $(0, infty)$ the situation is a bit trickier, because both functions are increasing. But if you know that $x < e^x$ for any $x > 0$, you can prove that $F(x) < G(x)$ as follows:
            $$x^2 < (e^x)^2 = e^{2x} < e^{3x}$$
            Therefore there are no solutions in $(0, infty)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$















            • $begingroup$
              So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
              $endgroup$
              – burt
              7 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
              $endgroup$
              – Luca Bressan
              7 hours ago














            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            This problem can be solved using the Lambert-W function as follows.
            $$x^2=e^{3x}$$
            $$sqrt{x^2}=sqrt{e^{3x}}$$
            $$x=pm e^{3x/2}$$
            $$-frac32 x=mpfrac32 e^{3x/2}$$
            $$-frac32 xe^{-3x/2}=mpfrac32$$
            $$-frac32 x=W_kleft(mpfrac32right)$$
            $$x=-frac23W_kleft(pmfrac32right)$$
            for any branch of the function $kinmathbb{Z}$. The only real solution would be when $k=0$ and $+$ is taken for the $pm$ giving
            $$x=-frac23W_0left(frac32right)approx-0.4839075718dots$$
            which is the value provided by your calculator.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              3












              $begingroup$

              This problem can be solved using the Lambert-W function as follows.
              $$x^2=e^{3x}$$
              $$sqrt{x^2}=sqrt{e^{3x}}$$
              $$x=pm e^{3x/2}$$
              $$-frac32 x=mpfrac32 e^{3x/2}$$
              $$-frac32 xe^{-3x/2}=mpfrac32$$
              $$-frac32 x=W_kleft(mpfrac32right)$$
              $$x=-frac23W_kleft(pmfrac32right)$$
              for any branch of the function $kinmathbb{Z}$. The only real solution would be when $k=0$ and $+$ is taken for the $pm$ giving
              $$x=-frac23W_0left(frac32right)approx-0.4839075718dots$$
              which is the value provided by your calculator.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                This problem can be solved using the Lambert-W function as follows.
                $$x^2=e^{3x}$$
                $$sqrt{x^2}=sqrt{e^{3x}}$$
                $$x=pm e^{3x/2}$$
                $$-frac32 x=mpfrac32 e^{3x/2}$$
                $$-frac32 xe^{-3x/2}=mpfrac32$$
                $$-frac32 x=W_kleft(mpfrac32right)$$
                $$x=-frac23W_kleft(pmfrac32right)$$
                for any branch of the function $kinmathbb{Z}$. The only real solution would be when $k=0$ and $+$ is taken for the $pm$ giving
                $$x=-frac23W_0left(frac32right)approx-0.4839075718dots$$
                which is the value provided by your calculator.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This problem can be solved using the Lambert-W function as follows.
                $$x^2=e^{3x}$$
                $$sqrt{x^2}=sqrt{e^{3x}}$$
                $$x=pm e^{3x/2}$$
                $$-frac32 x=mpfrac32 e^{3x/2}$$
                $$-frac32 xe^{-3x/2}=mpfrac32$$
                $$-frac32 x=W_kleft(mpfrac32right)$$
                $$x=-frac23W_kleft(pmfrac32right)$$
                for any branch of the function $kinmathbb{Z}$. The only real solution would be when $k=0$ and $+$ is taken for the $pm$ giving
                $$x=-frac23W_0left(frac32right)approx-0.4839075718dots$$
                which is the value provided by your calculator.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 7 hours ago









                Peter ForemanPeter Foreman

                12.8k1 gold badge5 silver badges28 bronze badges




                12.8k1 gold badge5 silver badges28 bronze badges




























                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Since the other answers provide the exact solution using the Lambert $W$ function, let me show you how you can prove that the equation $x^2 = e^{3x}$ has one and only one solution using elementary methods.



                    Let $F(x) = x^2$ and $G(x) = e^{3x}$.



                    If you plot $F$ and $G$ on the same plane, you can see that there is exactly one point $x$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Here $y = F(x)$ is in red and $y = G(x)$ is in blue:



                    Intersection



                    Now, if you want to prove that there is a unique solution to the equation, you can reason as follows.



                    Consider first the interval $(-infty, 0]$.




                    1. Since $F$ is decreasing and $G$ is increasing, there is at most one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.

                    2. Since $F(-1) > G(-1)$ and $F(0) < G(0)$, there is at least one $x in (-1, 0)$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.


                    Combining the two results, we know that there is exactly one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Moreover, $x in (-1, 0)$.



                    For the interval $(0, infty)$ the situation is a bit trickier, because both functions are increasing. But if you know that $x < e^x$ for any $x > 0$, you can prove that $F(x) < G(x)$ as follows:
                    $$x^2 < (e^x)^2 = e^{2x} < e^{3x}$$
                    Therefore there are no solutions in $(0, infty)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$















                    • $begingroup$
                      So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                      $endgroup$
                      – burt
                      7 hours ago






                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Luca Bressan
                      7 hours ago
















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Since the other answers provide the exact solution using the Lambert $W$ function, let me show you how you can prove that the equation $x^2 = e^{3x}$ has one and only one solution using elementary methods.



                    Let $F(x) = x^2$ and $G(x) = e^{3x}$.



                    If you plot $F$ and $G$ on the same plane, you can see that there is exactly one point $x$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Here $y = F(x)$ is in red and $y = G(x)$ is in blue:



                    Intersection



                    Now, if you want to prove that there is a unique solution to the equation, you can reason as follows.



                    Consider first the interval $(-infty, 0]$.




                    1. Since $F$ is decreasing and $G$ is increasing, there is at most one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.

                    2. Since $F(-1) > G(-1)$ and $F(0) < G(0)$, there is at least one $x in (-1, 0)$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.


                    Combining the two results, we know that there is exactly one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Moreover, $x in (-1, 0)$.



                    For the interval $(0, infty)$ the situation is a bit trickier, because both functions are increasing. But if you know that $x < e^x$ for any $x > 0$, you can prove that $F(x) < G(x)$ as follows:
                    $$x^2 < (e^x)^2 = e^{2x} < e^{3x}$$
                    Therefore there are no solutions in $(0, infty)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$















                    • $begingroup$
                      So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                      $endgroup$
                      – burt
                      7 hours ago






                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Luca Bressan
                      7 hours ago














                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    Since the other answers provide the exact solution using the Lambert $W$ function, let me show you how you can prove that the equation $x^2 = e^{3x}$ has one and only one solution using elementary methods.



                    Let $F(x) = x^2$ and $G(x) = e^{3x}$.



                    If you plot $F$ and $G$ on the same plane, you can see that there is exactly one point $x$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Here $y = F(x)$ is in red and $y = G(x)$ is in blue:



                    Intersection



                    Now, if you want to prove that there is a unique solution to the equation, you can reason as follows.



                    Consider first the interval $(-infty, 0]$.




                    1. Since $F$ is decreasing and $G$ is increasing, there is at most one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.

                    2. Since $F(-1) > G(-1)$ and $F(0) < G(0)$, there is at least one $x in (-1, 0)$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.


                    Combining the two results, we know that there is exactly one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Moreover, $x in (-1, 0)$.



                    For the interval $(0, infty)$ the situation is a bit trickier, because both functions are increasing. But if you know that $x < e^x$ for any $x > 0$, you can prove that $F(x) < G(x)$ as follows:
                    $$x^2 < (e^x)^2 = e^{2x} < e^{3x}$$
                    Therefore there are no solutions in $(0, infty)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Since the other answers provide the exact solution using the Lambert $W$ function, let me show you how you can prove that the equation $x^2 = e^{3x}$ has one and only one solution using elementary methods.



                    Let $F(x) = x^2$ and $G(x) = e^{3x}$.



                    If you plot $F$ and $G$ on the same plane, you can see that there is exactly one point $x$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Here $y = F(x)$ is in red and $y = G(x)$ is in blue:



                    Intersection



                    Now, if you want to prove that there is a unique solution to the equation, you can reason as follows.



                    Consider first the interval $(-infty, 0]$.




                    1. Since $F$ is decreasing and $G$ is increasing, there is at most one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.

                    2. Since $F(-1) > G(-1)$ and $F(0) < G(0)$, there is at least one $x in (-1, 0)$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$.


                    Combining the two results, we know that there is exactly one $x in (-infty, 0]$ such that $F(x) = G(x)$. Moreover, $x in (-1, 0)$.



                    For the interval $(0, infty)$ the situation is a bit trickier, because both functions are increasing. But if you know that $x < e^x$ for any $x > 0$, you can prove that $F(x) < G(x)$ as follows:
                    $$x^2 < (e^x)^2 = e^{2x} < e^{3x}$$
                    Therefore there are no solutions in $(0, infty)$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 7 hours ago









                    Luca BressanLuca Bressan

                    4,2902 gold badges10 silver badges38 bronze badges




                    4,2902 gold badges10 silver badges38 bronze badges















                    • $begingroup$
                      So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                      $endgroup$
                      – burt
                      7 hours ago






                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Luca Bressan
                      7 hours ago


















                    • $begingroup$
                      So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                      $endgroup$
                      – burt
                      7 hours ago






                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Luca Bressan
                      7 hours ago
















                    $begingroup$
                    So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                    $endgroup$
                    – burt
                    7 hours ago




                    $begingroup$
                    So would I be able to find the answer on a calculator by graphing the two equations and finding the intersection?
                    $endgroup$
                    – burt
                    7 hours ago




                    1




                    1




                    $begingroup$
                    Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Luca Bressan
                    7 hours ago




                    $begingroup$
                    Yes. If you don't want (or aren't allowed) to use a graphing calculator, you can still plot the two graphs by hand. For a better approximation of $x$, you just need to find a sufficiently small interval $(a, b)$ such that $F(a) > G(a)$ and $F(b) < G(b)$, e.g. $(-0.49, -0.48)$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Luca Bressan
                    7 hours ago


















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