Isn't that (two voices leaping to C like this) a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?Hidden fifths...

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Isn't that (two voices leaping to C like this) a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?


Hidden fifths between tenor and soprano in Tchaikovsky's “Guide to harmony”Latin jazz: anticipated chord change on last beatHarmonising cadences given the bass line. When and when not to use inversions?Tonal harmony: 18th century counterpoint vs. Accessible contemporary harmony and compositionIs this a form of cadence?Harmony - four part vocal style and pianoforte styleDo we hear bass/baritone solo melody lines as being implicitly “on top of” the accompaniment, for harmonic purposesIs it wrong to have two voices move from a perfect fifth to a perfect octave?Are these upper voices in this final passage from Handel a bona fide F7 chord or some kind of non-chord tones?Hidden fifths between tenor and soprano in Tchaikovsky's “Guide to harmony”






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enter image description here
In this arrangement of O God, our help in ages past I have found what looks like a breaking of the rule of harmony.
In bar 1 we have I/3-vi. The tenor leaps up to C and the Soprano does the same. Isn't that a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?
It sounds like the tenor actually should have walked up to A instead of C.
How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?










share|improve this question

























  • Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

    – Albrecht Hügli
    5 hours ago




















2















enter image description here
In this arrangement of O God, our help in ages past I have found what looks like a breaking of the rule of harmony.
In bar 1 we have I/3-vi. The tenor leaps up to C and the Soprano does the same. Isn't that a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?
It sounds like the tenor actually should have walked up to A instead of C.
How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?










share|improve this question

























  • Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

    – Albrecht Hügli
    5 hours ago
















2












2








2








enter image description here
In this arrangement of O God, our help in ages past I have found what looks like a breaking of the rule of harmony.
In bar 1 we have I/3-vi. The tenor leaps up to C and the Soprano does the same. Isn't that a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?
It sounds like the tenor actually should have walked up to A instead of C.
How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?










share|improve this question














enter image description here
In this arrangement of O God, our help in ages past I have found what looks like a breaking of the rule of harmony.
In bar 1 we have I/3-vi. The tenor leaps up to C and the Soprano does the same. Isn't that a breaking of the rules of four-part harmony?
It sounds like the tenor actually should have walked up to A instead of C.
How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?







harmony






share|improve this question













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asked 9 hours ago









HankHank

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  • Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

    – Albrecht Hügli
    5 hours ago





















  • Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

    – Albrecht Hügli
    5 hours ago



















Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

– Albrecht Hügli
5 hours ago







Yes, this is not conform with the rules, but in my opinion it is not a serious crime.

– Albrecht Hügli
5 hours ago












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2
















Well, this is a piano reduction where the voicing is absent. My guess is that the tenor is supposed to leap to E (well in the tenor realm) while the alto sticks with its previous tenacity at C. In which case this would be a voice inversion in singing and not a strict violation of "no octave parallels, please". Check the vocal score for comparison. Of course, if your interpretation is right also for the vocal score, that is a pretty bland case of octave parallels.



[Edit] After looking for the score online, I've seen a version where the chord before the leap does not have the G in the tenor (which presumably shares the E with the bass). There are other places in the score with just 3 different notes in the voices, so this seems like a simpler explanation. However, the version I found is also without lyrics, so it may also be the case that it is a different piano reduction where the arranger ripped out the octave parallel.



So finding a vocal variant still seems like the smartest idea.






share|improve this answer










New contributor



user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

















  • 1





    The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago











  • It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

    – supercat
    25 mins ago



















2
















How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?



I think this is a more pleasant solution:



enter image description here



found in:



[PDF]
O God, Our Help in Ages Past - Hymnary.org



https://hymnary.org › media › fetch






share|improve this answer




























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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






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    Well, this is a piano reduction where the voicing is absent. My guess is that the tenor is supposed to leap to E (well in the tenor realm) while the alto sticks with its previous tenacity at C. In which case this would be a voice inversion in singing and not a strict violation of "no octave parallels, please". Check the vocal score for comparison. Of course, if your interpretation is right also for the vocal score, that is a pretty bland case of octave parallels.



    [Edit] After looking for the score online, I've seen a version where the chord before the leap does not have the G in the tenor (which presumably shares the E with the bass). There are other places in the score with just 3 different notes in the voices, so this seems like a simpler explanation. However, the version I found is also without lyrics, so it may also be the case that it is a different piano reduction where the arranger ripped out the octave parallel.



    So finding a vocal variant still seems like the smartest idea.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.

















    • 1





      The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

      – Andrew Leach
      8 hours ago











    • It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

      – supercat
      25 mins ago
















    2
















    Well, this is a piano reduction where the voicing is absent. My guess is that the tenor is supposed to leap to E (well in the tenor realm) while the alto sticks with its previous tenacity at C. In which case this would be a voice inversion in singing and not a strict violation of "no octave parallels, please". Check the vocal score for comparison. Of course, if your interpretation is right also for the vocal score, that is a pretty bland case of octave parallels.



    [Edit] After looking for the score online, I've seen a version where the chord before the leap does not have the G in the tenor (which presumably shares the E with the bass). There are other places in the score with just 3 different notes in the voices, so this seems like a simpler explanation. However, the version I found is also without lyrics, so it may also be the case that it is a different piano reduction where the arranger ripped out the octave parallel.



    So finding a vocal variant still seems like the smartest idea.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.

















    • 1





      The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

      – Andrew Leach
      8 hours ago











    • It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

      – supercat
      25 mins ago














    2














    2










    2









    Well, this is a piano reduction where the voicing is absent. My guess is that the tenor is supposed to leap to E (well in the tenor realm) while the alto sticks with its previous tenacity at C. In which case this would be a voice inversion in singing and not a strict violation of "no octave parallels, please". Check the vocal score for comparison. Of course, if your interpretation is right also for the vocal score, that is a pretty bland case of octave parallels.



    [Edit] After looking for the score online, I've seen a version where the chord before the leap does not have the G in the tenor (which presumably shares the E with the bass). There are other places in the score with just 3 different notes in the voices, so this seems like a simpler explanation. However, the version I found is also without lyrics, so it may also be the case that it is a different piano reduction where the arranger ripped out the octave parallel.



    So finding a vocal variant still seems like the smartest idea.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.









    Well, this is a piano reduction where the voicing is absent. My guess is that the tenor is supposed to leap to E (well in the tenor realm) while the alto sticks with its previous tenacity at C. In which case this would be a voice inversion in singing and not a strict violation of "no octave parallels, please". Check the vocal score for comparison. Of course, if your interpretation is right also for the vocal score, that is a pretty bland case of octave parallels.



    [Edit] After looking for the score online, I've seen a version where the chord before the leap does not have the G in the tenor (which presumably shares the E with the bass). There are other places in the score with just 3 different notes in the voices, so this seems like a simpler explanation. However, the version I found is also without lyrics, so it may also be the case that it is a different piano reduction where the arranger ripped out the octave parallel.



    So finding a vocal variant still seems like the smartest idea.







    share|improve this answer










    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 8 hours ago





















    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    answered 9 hours ago









    user63046user63046

    212 bronze badges




    212 bronze badges




    New contributor



    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.




    New contributor




    user63046 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.













    • 1





      The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

      – Andrew Leach
      8 hours ago











    • It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

      – supercat
      25 mins ago














    • 1





      The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

      – Andrew Leach
      8 hours ago











    • It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

      – supercat
      25 mins ago








    1




    1





    The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago





    The four-part vocal arrangement I have easiest to hand (New English Hymnal) doubles the major third on chord 3 (F major) and 4 (C first inversion). That's probably more acceptable than parallels.

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago













    It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

    – supercat
    25 mins ago





    It's not clear whether your adjective "bland" is intended to suggest that the harmonic interest is undermined by the presence of the parallel leap, or to suggest that the crime is relatively insignificant because the parallel octave does not call undue attention to itself. I'd lean toward the latter interpretation since this seems a reasonable place to accent the melody (thus the attention isn't "undue") and also, as a practical matter, having the tenors sing along with the melodic leap could help the congregation find the right note.

    – supercat
    25 mins ago













    2
















    How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?



    I think this is a more pleasant solution:



    enter image description here



    found in:



    [PDF]
    O God, Our Help in Ages Past - Hymnary.org



    https://hymnary.org › media › fetch






    share|improve this answer






























      2
















      How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?



      I think this is a more pleasant solution:



      enter image description here



      found in:



      [PDF]
      O God, Our Help in Ages Past - Hymnary.org



      https://hymnary.org › media › fetch






      share|improve this answer




























        2














        2










        2









        How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?



        I think this is a more pleasant solution:



        enter image description here



        found in:



        [PDF]
        O God, Our Help in Ages Past - Hymnary.org



        https://hymnary.org › media › fetch






        share|improve this answer













        How should the voices in I/3 have moved to the next chord and what chord should that have been?



        I think this is a more pleasant solution:



        enter image description here



        found in:



        [PDF]
        O God, Our Help in Ages Past - Hymnary.org



        https://hymnary.org › media › fetch







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 5 hours ago









        Albrecht HügliAlbrecht Hügli

        7,2171 gold badge7 silver badges26 bronze badges




        7,2171 gold badge7 silver badges26 bronze badges


































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