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1














$begingroup$


I am trying to find the roots of the equation



$$
e^{x} -cos x = 0.
$$



Used the Lambert W function to arrive at
$$
x = W(xcos x),
$$

but I don't know how to proceed from there to get the explicit roots. Any help is much welcome










share|cite|improve this question










$endgroup$















  • $begingroup$
    I think you will need a numerical method.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
    $endgroup$
    – DYBnor
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The Newton Raphson method
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago


















1














$begingroup$


I am trying to find the roots of the equation



$$
e^{x} -cos x = 0.
$$



Used the Lambert W function to arrive at
$$
x = W(xcos x),
$$

but I don't know how to proceed from there to get the explicit roots. Any help is much welcome










share|cite|improve this question










$endgroup$















  • $begingroup$
    I think you will need a numerical method.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
    $endgroup$
    – DYBnor
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The Newton Raphson method
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am trying to find the roots of the equation



$$
e^{x} -cos x = 0.
$$



Used the Lambert W function to arrive at
$$
x = W(xcos x),
$$

but I don't know how to proceed from there to get the explicit roots. Any help is much welcome










share|cite|improve this question










$endgroup$




I am trying to find the roots of the equation



$$
e^{x} -cos x = 0.
$$



Used the Lambert W function to arrive at
$$
x = W(xcos x),
$$

but I don't know how to proceed from there to get the explicit roots. Any help is much welcome







logarithms






share|cite|improve this question














share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 9 hours ago









DYBnorDYBnor

1046 bronze badges




1046 bronze badges















  • $begingroup$
    I think you will need a numerical method.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
    $endgroup$
    – DYBnor
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The Newton Raphson method
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    I think you will need a numerical method.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
    $endgroup$
    – DYBnor
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The Newton Raphson method
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    8 hours ago
















$begingroup$
I think you will need a numerical method.
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
I think you will need a numerical method.
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
@Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
$endgroup$
– DYBnor
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
@Sonnhard what numerical method would you suggest?
$endgroup$
– DYBnor
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
The Newton Raphson method
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
The Newton Raphson method
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
8 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2
















$begingroup$

Since $-1le cos xle 1$ and $e^x>0$ with $e^x>1, ; x>0$, by IVT we have infinitely many solutions for $xle 0$, one is the trivial $x=0$ the others can by found by numerical methods.



Notably we have $2$ not trivial roots for each pair of intervals with $x<0$ such that $0<cos x<1$ that is for $n=0,1,2,dots$ that is



$$-frac{pi}2 -2pi n pi <x<-2pi n$$



$$-2pi-2pi n<x<-frac32 pi -2pi n$$



Note also that for $|x|$ very large, roots are well approximated by the roots for $cos x=0$ with $x<0$ that is $xapprox -frac{pi}2-npi$.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer












$endgroup$























    0
















    $begingroup$

    You could use numerical methods



    You could use maclaurin's expansion



    $e^x-cos x = x+x^2+frac{x^3}{6}$



    Upto 3 degree would be good



    Now this becomes a cubic equation
    $x=0$



    Now this becomes a quadratic equation



    $1+x+frac{x^2}{6}$
    Roots are -4.725,-1.281






    share|cite|improve this answer










    $endgroup$























      0
















      $begingroup$

      A supposed hint is that by using the Mclaurin-series for both the $e^x$ and $cos(x)$, we can arrive at this;



      $$x^2sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}+frac{1}{2}sinhleft(xright)=0$$



      Now take,



      $a=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}$



      Now we can get different expressions for the same thing;
      $$lnleft(-2x^{2}a+sqrt{4x^{4}a^{2}+1}right)-x=0$$
      $$e^{x}4x^{2}a+e^{2x}-1=0$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      New contributor



      fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.





      $endgroup$

















        Your Answer








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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        2
















        $begingroup$

        Since $-1le cos xle 1$ and $e^x>0$ with $e^x>1, ; x>0$, by IVT we have infinitely many solutions for $xle 0$, one is the trivial $x=0$ the others can by found by numerical methods.



        Notably we have $2$ not trivial roots for each pair of intervals with $x<0$ such that $0<cos x<1$ that is for $n=0,1,2,dots$ that is



        $$-frac{pi}2 -2pi n pi <x<-2pi n$$



        $$-2pi-2pi n<x<-frac32 pi -2pi n$$



        Note also that for $|x|$ very large, roots are well approximated by the roots for $cos x=0$ with $x<0$ that is $xapprox -frac{pi}2-npi$.



        enter image description here






        share|cite|improve this answer












        $endgroup$




















          2
















          $begingroup$

          Since $-1le cos xle 1$ and $e^x>0$ with $e^x>1, ; x>0$, by IVT we have infinitely many solutions for $xle 0$, one is the trivial $x=0$ the others can by found by numerical methods.



          Notably we have $2$ not trivial roots for each pair of intervals with $x<0$ such that $0<cos x<1$ that is for $n=0,1,2,dots$ that is



          $$-frac{pi}2 -2pi n pi <x<-2pi n$$



          $$-2pi-2pi n<x<-frac32 pi -2pi n$$



          Note also that for $|x|$ very large, roots are well approximated by the roots for $cos x=0$ with $x<0$ that is $xapprox -frac{pi}2-npi$.



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $endgroup$


















            2














            2










            2







            $begingroup$

            Since $-1le cos xle 1$ and $e^x>0$ with $e^x>1, ; x>0$, by IVT we have infinitely many solutions for $xle 0$, one is the trivial $x=0$ the others can by found by numerical methods.



            Notably we have $2$ not trivial roots for each pair of intervals with $x<0$ such that $0<cos x<1$ that is for $n=0,1,2,dots$ that is



            $$-frac{pi}2 -2pi n pi <x<-2pi n$$



            $$-2pi-2pi n<x<-frac32 pi -2pi n$$



            Note also that for $|x|$ very large, roots are well approximated by the roots for $cos x=0$ with $x<0$ that is $xapprox -frac{pi}2-npi$.



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer












            $endgroup$



            Since $-1le cos xle 1$ and $e^x>0$ with $e^x>1, ; x>0$, by IVT we have infinitely many solutions for $xle 0$, one is the trivial $x=0$ the others can by found by numerical methods.



            Notably we have $2$ not trivial roots for each pair of intervals with $x<0$ such that $0<cos x<1$ that is for $n=0,1,2,dots$ that is



            $$-frac{pi}2 -2pi n pi <x<-2pi n$$



            $$-2pi-2pi n<x<-frac32 pi -2pi n$$



            Note also that for $|x|$ very large, roots are well approximated by the roots for $cos x=0$ with $x<0$ that is $xapprox -frac{pi}2-npi$.



            enter image description here







            share|cite|improve this answer















            share|cite|improve this answer




            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 8 hours ago

























            answered 8 hours ago









            gimusigimusi

            98.1k9 gold badges47 silver badges96 bronze badges




            98.1k9 gold badges47 silver badges96 bronze badges




























                0
















                $begingroup$

                You could use numerical methods



                You could use maclaurin's expansion



                $e^x-cos x = x+x^2+frac{x^3}{6}$



                Upto 3 degree would be good



                Now this becomes a cubic equation
                $x=0$



                Now this becomes a quadratic equation



                $1+x+frac{x^2}{6}$
                Roots are -4.725,-1.281






                share|cite|improve this answer










                $endgroup$




















                  0
















                  $begingroup$

                  You could use numerical methods



                  You could use maclaurin's expansion



                  $e^x-cos x = x+x^2+frac{x^3}{6}$



                  Upto 3 degree would be good



                  Now this becomes a cubic equation
                  $x=0$



                  Now this becomes a quadratic equation



                  $1+x+frac{x^2}{6}$
                  Roots are -4.725,-1.281






                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  $endgroup$


















                    0














                    0










                    0







                    $begingroup$

                    You could use numerical methods



                    You could use maclaurin's expansion



                    $e^x-cos x = x+x^2+frac{x^3}{6}$



                    Upto 3 degree would be good



                    Now this becomes a cubic equation
                    $x=0$



                    Now this becomes a quadratic equation



                    $1+x+frac{x^2}{6}$
                    Roots are -4.725,-1.281






                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    $endgroup$



                    You could use numerical methods



                    You could use maclaurin's expansion



                    $e^x-cos x = x+x^2+frac{x^3}{6}$



                    Upto 3 degree would be good



                    Now this becomes a cubic equation
                    $x=0$



                    Now this becomes a quadratic equation



                    $1+x+frac{x^2}{6}$
                    Roots are -4.725,-1.281







                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    share|cite|improve this answer




                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 8 hours ago









                    Harshit GuptaHarshit Gupta

                    62113 bronze badges




                    62113 bronze badges


























                        0
















                        $begingroup$

                        A supposed hint is that by using the Mclaurin-series for both the $e^x$ and $cos(x)$, we can arrive at this;



                        $$x^2sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}+frac{1}{2}sinhleft(xright)=0$$



                        Now take,



                        $a=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}$



                        Now we can get different expressions for the same thing;
                        $$lnleft(-2x^{2}a+sqrt{4x^{4}a^{2}+1}right)-x=0$$
                        $$e^{x}4x^{2}a+e^{2x}-1=0$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        New contributor



                        fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.





                        $endgroup$




















                          0
















                          $begingroup$

                          A supposed hint is that by using the Mclaurin-series for both the $e^x$ and $cos(x)$, we can arrive at this;



                          $$x^2sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}+frac{1}{2}sinhleft(xright)=0$$



                          Now take,



                          $a=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}$



                          Now we can get different expressions for the same thing;
                          $$lnleft(-2x^{2}a+sqrt{4x^{4}a^{2}+1}right)-x=0$$
                          $$e^{x}4x^{2}a+e^{2x}-1=0$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          New contributor



                          fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                          Check out our Code of Conduct.





                          $endgroup$


















                            0














                            0










                            0







                            $begingroup$

                            A supposed hint is that by using the Mclaurin-series for both the $e^x$ and $cos(x)$, we can arrive at this;



                            $$x^2sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}+frac{1}{2}sinhleft(xright)=0$$



                            Now take,



                            $a=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}$



                            Now we can get different expressions for the same thing;
                            $$lnleft(-2x^{2}a+sqrt{4x^{4}a^{2}+1}right)-x=0$$
                            $$e^{x}4x^{2}a+e^{2x}-1=0$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            New contributor



                            fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                            Check out our Code of Conduct.





                            $endgroup$



                            A supposed hint is that by using the Mclaurin-series for both the $e^x$ and $cos(x)$, we can arrive at this;



                            $$x^2sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}+frac{1}{2}sinhleft(xright)=0$$



                            Now take,



                            $a=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{x^{4k}}{(4k+2)!}$



                            Now we can get different expressions for the same thing;
                            $$lnleft(-2x^{2}a+sqrt{4x^{4}a^{2}+1}right)-x=0$$
                            $$e^{x}4x^{2}a+e^{2x}-1=0$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            New contributor



                            fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                            Check out our Code of Conduct.








                            share|cite|improve this answer




                            share|cite|improve this answer






                            New contributor



                            fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                            Check out our Code of Conduct.








                            answered 7 hours ago









                            fishfagfishfag

                            2907 bronze badges




                            2907 bronze badges




                            New contributor



                            fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                            Check out our Code of Conduct.




                            New contributor




                            fishfag is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                            Check out our Code of Conduct.




































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