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Proving a certain type of topology is discrete without the axiom of choice

Topological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteIf totally disconnectedness does not imply the discrete topology, then what is wrong with my argument?Topological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteDiscrete topology on infinite setsWith out the axiom of choice is the following true: If a topology on $X$ contains every infinite subset of $X$, then this is the discrete topology.The bases for the discrete topologyShow that $mathcal T$ is the discrete topology on $X$.Co-countable topology, anticompact and axiom of choiceAre singletons compact in the discrete topology?Why isn't the Cantor set a discrete topology?The Discrete topology on $mathbb{R}$ is a $T_1$ space and not limit point Compact

.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}

8

2

$begingroup$

I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.

Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleft{xright}$ and $Bcupleft{xright}$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $left{xright}$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.

However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?

So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?

general-topology set-theory axiom-of-choice

share|cite|improve this question

edited 9 hours ago

J_P

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
  $endgroup$
  – Max
  9 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

8

2

$begingroup$

I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.

Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleft{xright}$ and $Bcupleft{xright}$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $left{xright}$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.

However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?

So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?

general-topology set-theory axiom-of-choice

share|cite|improve this question

edited 9 hours ago

J_P

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
  $endgroup$
  – Max
  9 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.

Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleft{xright}$ and $Bcupleft{xright}$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $left{xright}$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.

However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?

So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?

general-topology set-theory axiom-of-choice

share|cite|improve this question

edited 9 hours ago

J_P

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this question

edited 9 hours ago

J_P

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

share|cite|improve this question

edited 9 hours ago

J_P

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

asked 9 hours ago

J_PJ_P

91711 silver badge1212 bronze badges

1 Answer
1

active

oldest

votes

8

$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.

If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.

So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Interesting....
  $endgroup$
  – Randall
  9 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
  $endgroup$
  – J_P
  9 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
  $endgroup$
  – Henno Brandsma
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

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8

$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.

If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.

So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Interesting....
  $endgroup$
  – Randall
  9 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
  $endgroup$
  – J_P
  9 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
  $endgroup$
  – Henno Brandsma
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

8

$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.

If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.

So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Interesting....
  $endgroup$
  – Randall
  9 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
  $endgroup$
  – J_P
  9 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
  $endgroup$
  – Henno Brandsma
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.

If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.

So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges

answered 9 hours ago

Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

249k1717 gold badges326326 silver badges567567 bronze badges